Saturday, December 25, 2010

MCQ Test Cahapter # 2 "Support and movement"

Chapter No: 2 “SUPPORT AND MOVEMENT
No: of Items: 94

Q:1: Movement takes place at

(A) Cellular level (B) Organ level
(C) Organism level (D) All A, B and C

Q:2: The whole body of Bryophyta is made up of

(A) Collenchyma cells (B) Sclerenchyma cells
(C) Parenchyma cells (D) Aerenchyma cells

Q:3: Collenchyma can be distinguished from parenchyma by

(A) Being dead cells (B) Without large vacuole
(C) Increased thickness of their cell walls (D) All A, B and C


Q:4: A tissue whose function is support and it performs that function while it is dead is _____________________.
(A) Collenchyma (B) Parenchyma


(C) Sclerenchyma (D) A and B


Q:5: In angiosperms the tissue that produces secondary xylem and secondary phloem is

(A) Protoderm (B) Ground meristem
(C) Intercalary meristem (D) Vascular cambium


Q:6: The unspecialized packing tissue found in epidermis, cortex and pith is

(A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) Cork cambium


Q:7: Xylem vessels have walls impregnated with

(A) Cutin (B) Chitin
(C) Keratin (D) Lignin


Q:8: The ___________ covers the plant but is replaced by ________________.

(A) Cuticle, epidermis (B) Endodermis, Epidermis
(C) Epidermis, cork (D) All A, B and C


Q:9: Secondary growth in plants begins with the formation of

(A) Vascular cambium only (B) Cork cambium only
(C) Vascular and cork cambium (D) Inter-calary meristems


Q:10: Cork is waterproof because its cell walls are impregnated with

(A) Chitin (B) Suberin
(C) Keratin (D) Pillin


Q:11: It is the xylem in the center of the tree that has stopped conducting water and minerals and is storing waste products from the plant.

(A) Sap wood (B) Heart wood
(C) Peripheral wood (D) Both B and C


Q:12: It is the portion of the xylem that is conducting water and minerals and hasn't started storing waste products.

(A) Sap wood (B) Heart wood
(C) Central wood (D) Both A and C


Q:13: Select the correct option for Label "A" and "B" in the following diagram?
















(A) "A" New Phloem, "B" New Xylem (B) "A" New Cork, "B" New Cortex
(C) "A" New Cork, "B" New Phelloderm (D) "A" New Xylem, "B" New Phloem
Q:14: Lenticels are necessary for

(A) Photosynthesis (B) Gaseous exchange
(C) Water absorption (D) All options are correct


Q:15: Movement of Railway creeper around any rope is an example of

(A) Nutation (B) Turgor movement
(C) Tropic movement (D) Seismonastic movement


Q:16: ______________ is directional movement response that occur in response to a directional stimulus.

(A) Nutation (B) Tropism
(C) Both A and B (D) Turgor movement


Q:17: Tropic movement in response to touch is known as

(A) Geotropism (B) Aerotropism
(C) Thigmotropism (D) Both B and C


Q:18: The growth of the pollen tube is always towards the ovules, it is due to

(A) Geotropism (B) Thigmotropism
(C) Phototropism (D) Chemotropism


Q:19: The movement of a plant in response to a touch or contact is

(A) Nyctinastic (B) Thermonastic
(C) Haptonatic (D) Hyponastic


Q:20: The flowers of Oxalis and Portulaca open in the day and close at night. It is

(A) Nyctinastic movement (B) Thermonastic movement
(C) Haptonatic movement (D) Thigmonastic movement


Q:21: Exoskeleton in Diatoms is made up of

(A) Protein (B) CaCO3
(C) Silica (D) Chitin


Q:22: Molluscs have an exoskeleton in the form of

(A) Proteinteous shell (B) Siliceous shell
(C) Calcareous shell (D) Chitineous shell


Q:23: The periodic shedding of exoskeleton in arthropods is known as

(A) Moulting (B) Ecdysis
(C) Both A and B (D) Stridulation

Q:24: Human endoskeleton is about _____________ of the total body weight.

(A) 80% (B) 70%
(C) 40% (D) 18%


Q:25: The tooth bearing bone of lower jaw is

(A) Atlas (B) Innominate
(C) Incus (D) Dentary


Q:26: An adult human endoskeleton consists of

(A) 363 bones (B) 639 bones
(C) 206 bones (D) Number varies by the individual


Q:27: The lower two pairs of ribs are

(A) True ribs (B) False ribs
(C) Floating ribs (D) All A, B and C


Q:28: Total number of ribs in your axial skeleton is

(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 33 (D) 26


Q:29: The original number of vertebrae in human vertebral column is

(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 33 (D) 26


Q:30: The visible number of vertebrae in human vertebral column is

(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 33 (D) 26


Q:31: Humerus forms a ball and socket joint with

(A) Clavicle (B) Sternum
(C) Innominate (D) Scapula


Q:32: The bones of lower arm are

(A) Tibia and fibula (B) Radius and ulna
(C) Carpals and metacarpals (D) Phalanges


Q:33: Which one of these makes bones hard?

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Minerals
(C) Proteins (D) Fats


Q:34: Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton

(A) Sternum (B) Vertebrae
(C) Femur (D) Skull


Q:35: In human’s back bone the Caudal vertebrae are reduced to 4 in number and are fused to form the

(A) Sacrum (B) Innominatum
(C) Coccyx (D) Ischium


Q:36: Bones are joined to each other at joints by

(A) Tendons (B) Ligaments
(C) Hyaline cartilage (D) Both A and B


Q:37: Muscles are attached to bones by

(A) Tendons (B) Ligaments
(C) Synovial membrane (D) Both A and C


Q:38: It is a _____________________ joint that allows the skull to rotate on our spine.

(A) Hinge joint (B) Fibrous joint
(C) Sliding joint (D) Pivotal joint


Q:39: Between each vertebrae are pads of __________________ called intervertebral disks which absorb shock and assist in limited movement of disks.

(A) Collagen fibers (B) Osteonectin protein
(C) Cartilage (D) All A, B and C

Q:40: The normal backbone is not straight, but has four curves. The curve in the region of the neck is composed of seven vertebrae and is known as the

(A) Lumbar region (B) Sacral region
(C) Coccygeal region (D) Cervical region


Q:41: The 12 vertebrae in the second curve of vertebral column are known as

(A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Thoracic vertebrae
(C) Lumbar vertebrae (D) Sacral vertebrae


Q:42: The shoulder girdle consists of two bones

(A) Humerus and Scapula (B) Humerus and Ulna
(C) Clavicle and Scapula (D) Ilium and Ischium


Q:43: The pelvic girdle is composed of three pairs of fused bones

(A) Ilium, Ischium and frontal (B) Clavicle, Scapula and pubis
(C) Malleus, Incus and stapes (D) Ilium, Ischium and pubis


Q:44: Select the correct option for label "16" in the following diagram.

























(A) Patella (B) Fibula
(C) Tibia (D) Radius

Q:45: The bones of the wrist are called

(A) Carpals (B) Metacarpals
(C) Tarsals (D) Metatarsals


Q:46: The joint found between the flat bones of the skull is classified as

(A) Immovable (B) Movable
(C) Slightly movable (D) None of these


Q:47: These cells are located in bone tissue

(A) Chondroblasts (B) Osteocytes
(C) Fibroblasts (D) Chondrocytes


Q:48: Chondroblasts produce

(A) Basement membranes (B) Bone matrix
(C) Cartilage matrix (D) Endothelium


Q:49: Gliding joints are present between

(A) Carpals and tarsals (B) Humerus and ulna
(C) Femur and innominate (D) Vertebrae


Q:50: Which type of joint is the most mobile?

(A) Pivot joint (B) Gliding joint
(C) Ball and socket joint (D) Fibrous joint


Q:51: The main protein in the matrix of cartilage is

(A) Collagen (B) Osteonectin
(C) Keratin (D) Actin


Q:52: The Jointed surfaces of bones are covered with

(A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Compact cartilage
(C) Articular cartilage (D) Both A end C


Q:53: The process of bone formation is called

(A) Ossification (B) Chondrification
(C) Ossi-chondrification (D) Both A and C


Q:54: Hinge joint is present between

(A) Humerus and radio-ulna (B) Femur and pectoral girdle
(C) Femur and acetabulum (D) Humerus and pectoral girdle


Q:55: The total number of bones in your right arm is

(A) 30 (B) 32
(C) 35 (D) 60


Q:56: Which bone in Man is concerned with locomotion

(A) Ulna (B) Femur
(C) Humerus (D) All of these


Q:57: It is spinal degeneration and deformity of the joints of two or more vertebrae that commonly occurs with aging.

(A) Sciatica (B) Osteoporosis
(C) Spondylosis (D) Both B and C


Q:58: In which skeletal deformity pain is felt in the lower back, buttock, and/or various parts of the leg and foot.

(A) Sciatica (B) Osteoporosis
(C) Arthritis (D) All of these


Q:59: Which of the following groupings is incorrect?

(A) Skeletal, striated, voluntary (B) Smooth, unstriated, involuntary
(C) Cardiac, striated, voluntary (D) Cardiac, striated, involuntary


Q:60: The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is

(A) Smooth (B) Skeletal
(C) Intercalated (D) Cardiac


Q:61: Which condition is shown in following diagram?













(A) Cleft Lip (B) Cleft Palate
(C) Incomplete cleft palate (D) Unilateral complete lip and palate


Q:62: Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT

(A) Striated (B) Voluntary
(C) Multinucleate (D) Autorhythmic


Q:63: The walls of digestive tract and blood vessels contain this muscle tissue

(A) Striated (B) Skeletal
(C) Cardiac (D) Smooth


Q:64: The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a

(A) Sarcomere (B) Motor unit
(C) Synapse (D) Thin filament


Q:65: The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are

(A) Myosin and tropomyocin (B) Myosin and actin
(C) Actin and troponin (D) Troponin and tropomyocin


Q:66: Muscles that straighten two bones at joints are called extensors. What is the name for muscles that cause two bones to bend at joints?

(A) Protractors (B) Flexors
(C) Adductors (D) Abductors


Q:67: Which of the following is the best description of cardiac muscle?

(A) Non-striated – Involuntary (B) Non-striated – Voluntary
(C) Striated – Involuntary (D) Striated – Voluntary


Q:68: The loss of bone density is called_____________ and can cause bones to become light, brittle, and easily broken.

(A) Spondylosis (B) Arthritis
(C) Sciatica (D) Osteoporosis


Q:69: Inflammation of the joint is known as

(A) Bursitis (B) Arthritis
(C) Both A and B (D) Nephritis


Q:70: A ______________ is single somatic motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers innervated by it.

(A) Somatic unit (B) Motor unit
(C) Associative unit (D) None of these


Q:71: The bicep and tricep muscles are found in

(A) Shank (B) Shoulder
(C) Upper arm (D) Lower jaw


Q:72: During muscular contraction

(A) Actin slide past myosin (B) ATP supplies energy
(C) calcium ions (Ca++) are involved (D) All of these


Q:73: A skeletal muscle cell

(A) has light and dark bands (B) has only one nucleus
(C) is under involuntary control (D) None of the above are true


Q:74: The proteins at the junctions between sarcomeres form the

(A) H zone (B) M line
(C) Z line (D) A band


Q:75: Thick myofilaments are composed of several hundred molecules of a fibrous protein known as

(A) Actin (B) Myosin
(C) Troponin (D) Tropomyocin


Q:76: Thin myofilaments are composed of two helically interwound, linear polymers of a globular protein known as

(A) Actin (B) Myosin
(C) Troponin (D) Tropomyocin


Q:77: A disk-like protein which is centrally located in sarcomeres is

(A) H line (B) M line
(C) Z line (D) I line


Q:78: Within a sarcomere _____________ thin filaments are arrayed around each thick filament.

(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 2 (D) 8


Q:79: Changes in sarcomere length are caused by the thin filaments being pulled along the thick filaments in the direction of the

(A) H zone (B) M line
(C) Z line (D) I band


Q:80: Tetany characteristically is considered to result from a severe degree of

(A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypercalcaemia
(C) Hypocalcaemia (D) Hypoglycemia

Q:81: The contraction of muscles depends upon

(A) Nerve impulse (B) Energy
(C) Calcium ions (D) All of these

Q:82: Human eye muscle contracts in

(A) 0.01 seconds (B) 0.05 seconds
(C) 0.08 seconds (D) All options are incorrect

Q:83: Bicep muscles are

(A) Flexor muscles (B) Extensor muscles
(C) Adductor muscles (D) Abductor muscles


Q:84: Tricep muscles are

(A) Flexor muscles (B) Extensor muscles
(C) Adductor muscles (D) Abductor muscles


Q:85: A muscle which moves a body part away from the mid line of the body is

(A) Flexor muscle (B) Extensor muscle
(C) Adductor muscle (D) Abductor muscle


Q:86: A muscle which moves a body part towards the mid line of the body is

(A) Flexor muscle (B) Extensor muscle
(C) Adductor muscle (D) Abductor muscle


Q:87: In earth worm contraction of ____________ muscles shortens the body.

(A) Longitudinal (B) Circular
(C) Protractor (D) Adductor


Q:88: In earth worm contraction of ____________ muscles lengthens the body.

(A) Longitudinal (B) Circular
(C) Retractor (D) Abductor


Q:89: The state of physiological inability of a muscle to contract due to accumulation of lactic acid is referred to as

(A) Rigor mortis (B) Muscle fatigue
(C) Muscle tetany (D) Muscle cramp


Q:90: The stationary part of skeletal muscle is known as

(A) Origin (B) Insertion
(C) Belly (D) Ligament


Q:91: The movement in Jelly fish is called

(A) Bell propulsion (B) Jet propulsion
(C) Float propulsion (D) None of these


Q:92: Cross bridges form between

(A) Troponin and tropomyosin (B) Calcium and sodium
(C) Sarcolemma and sarcoplasm (D) Myosin head and Actin filament


Q:93: The limb bones first appeared in

(A) Jawless fishes (B) Lobe finned fishes
(C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles


Q:94: Select the correct for diagram below



















(A)"A" Myosin, "B" Actin, "C" H-zone (B) "A" Myosin, "B" Actin, "C" M-lines
(C) "A" Actin, "B" Myosin, "C" Z-lines (D) "A" Troponin, "B" Tropomycin, "C" Z-lines



Answer Key:



1. D
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. C
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. C
45. A
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. A
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. A
62. D
63. D
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. C
68. D
69. B
70. B
71. C
72. D
73. A
74. C
75. B
76. A
77. B
78. B
79. B
80. C
81. D
82. A
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. C
87. A
88. B
89. B
90. A
91. B
92. D
93. C
94. C


Chapter=2
Support and movement

Saturday, February 6, 2010

MCQ TEST CHAPTER # 5 VARIETY OF LIFE

Q:1: In the two kingdom systems which of these would characterize an animal

(A) Photosynthesis

(B) Ingestion of food
(C) Cellulose cell wall
(D) Inability to move

Q:2: The five kingdom system of classification was proposed by


(A) E-chattas

(B) Robert Whittaker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Karlene and Margulis

Q3: Organism with prokaryotic cells belong to the kingdom


(A) Protista

(B) Fungi
(C) Monera
(D) Animalia

Q:4: A set of related genera would be grouped into


(A) Species
(B) Family
(C) Class
(D) Order

Q:5: A class is a group of related


(A) Species
(B) Genera
(C) Families
(D) Orders

Q:6: Which of the following is the correct arrangement of kingdoms



















(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Q:7: Linnaeus developed the system of nomenclature which we still use today is

(A) Common
(B) Binomial
(C) Scientific
(D) Phase


Q:8: In the scientific name of onion, Allium cepa, the Allium belongs to its

(A) Species
(B) Family
(C) Class
(D) Genus

Q:9: The mode of nutrition related to fungi in 5 kingdom classification is

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Absorption
(C) Ingestion
(D) Chemosynthesis

Q:10: A group of organisms at any particular level in a classification system is called a

(A) Species
(B) Taxon
(C) Genus
(D) Phylum


Q:11: Which of the following is NOT true about viruses


(A) Obligate intracellular parasite
(B) Contain DNA and RNA
(C) Are acellular
(D) Uses host machinery

Q:12: A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is a

(A) Virulent phage

(B) Prophage
(C) Lytic phage

(D) None of these


Q:13: Which virus is transmitted by faecal oral route


(A) Influenza virus
(B) Hepatitis A virus
(C) Dengue virus
(D) Hepatitis C virus

Q:14: The plant kingdom is first divided into which category of classification?

(A) Family
(B) Division
(C) Order
(D) Class

Q:15: Identifying organisms by their Genus and Species names is called

(A) Nomenclature
(B) Systematic
(C) Binomial Nomenclature
(D) Succession

Q:16: The seven bones in the human neck correspond with the same seven, much larger, neck bones in the giraffe . They are

(A) Analogues
(B) Homologues
(C) Vestiges

(D) All A, B and C

Q:17: If you compare a human arm with the front leg of an alligator or horse, or the flipper of a whale or a bat's skin-covered wing -you will find they all have a similar arrangement and number of bones. This will be helpful to you to classify these animals on the basis of

(A) Genetics
(B) Analogy
(C) Homology
(D) Biochemistry


Q:18: The fact that all land animals with backbones have the basic pattern of "five-boned" arms, this similarity is due to an inheritance from a

(A) Common ancestor
(B) Different ancestors
(C) Both A and B

(D) A or B

Q:19: Organisms in the Kingdom Animalia are


(A Multicellular & heterotrophic
(B) Multicellular & autotrophic
(C) Unicellular & autotrophic
(D) Unicellular & Heterotrophic

Q:20: Which of the following groups would contain the largest number of organisms?

(A) Class
(B) Order
(C) Phylum
(D) Family

Q:21: What do plants and animals have in common?

(A) Both are heterotrophic
(B) Both are autotrophic
(C) Both are prokaryotic
(D) Both are eukaryotic

Q:22: If two organisms are in the same phylum, they must also be in the same

(A) Class
(B) Species
(C) Family
(D) Kingdom

Q:23: The level of hierarchy just below Phylum is

(A) Order
(B) Family
(C) Class
(D) Kingdom

Q:24: Which of the following is necessary for a virus to reproduce?
(A) A living host cell
(B) A vaccine
(C) A high body temperature
(D) Sunlight, water, and food

Q:25: A ________is a submicroscopic infectious particle composed of a protein coat and a nucleic acid core.

(A) Virus
(B) Bacterium
(C) Slime mold
(D) Water mold

Q:26: All viruses

(A) Contain DNA
(B) Contain RNA
(C) Contain protein
(D) are intracellular parasites

Q:27: An example of latent period in which DNA of phage is Integrated with the DNA of host coli chromosome is


(A) Lysis
(B) Lysogenic-phase
(C) Prophage

(D) Attenuated virus


Q:28: Which of the following is a un-matching set regarding viral diseases?


(A) Rhabdo virus ____Rabies
(B) Paramyxo virus ____ Mumps
(C) Rhino virus _____ yellow fever
(D) Arbo virus_____Encephalitis

Q:29: HIV is

(A) Plus strand virus
(B) Un-enveloped minus strand virus
(C) Retrovirus
(D) Large gnome virus.

Q:30: Virus is a Latin word meaning

(A) Minute creature
(B) Poison
(C) Medicine
(D) Disease

Q:31:Viroids differ from other viruses in having?

(A) Only naked RNA molecule
(B) Only naked DNA molecule
(C) Virus genome with satellite DNA
(D) Virus genome with histone

Q:32: The first to isolate a plant virus as crystal

(A) W.M.Stanely
(B) Smith
(C) Stakmann
(D) Ivanowski

Q:33: Genetic material of Tobacco mosaic virus is

(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) Fat
(D) Protein

Q:34: Small pox, yellow fever, Diphtheria, herpes, Tetanus, Mumps, Citrus Canker, Typhoid, AIDS, Measles are some examples of diseases, How many of them
are caused by viruses?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 6

Q:35: Herpes and shingles are caused by

(A) Medium and large genome DNA virus
(B) Small genome DNA virus
(C) Medium and large genome RNA virus
(D) Small genome RNA virus

Q:36: The viruses whose genome act directly as messenger RNA after infecting a
host cell are called.

(A) Plus strand DNA viruses
(B) Minus strand RNA viruses
(C) Plus strand RNA viruses
(D) Minus strand DNA viruses


Q:37: The best known anti-HIV drug is

(A) Benzodiazephine
(B) Leodopa
(C) Azidothymidine
(D) None of these

Q:38: Living organisms can be classified on the basis of

(A) Homology
(B) Cytology
(C) Biochemistry
(D) All of these

Q:39: Encephalitis is caused by

(A) Arbo virus
(B) Rhino virus
(C) Rhabdo virus
(D) Paramyxo virus

Q:40: A plant infected from an external source of virus through injured parts is

(A) Vertical transmission
(B) Horizontal transmission
(C) Retrograde transmission
(D) None of these

Q:41: During lytic cycle how many phages are released from infected host cell

(A) 100-300
(B) 100-500
(C) 100-200
(D) 100-400

Q:42: When a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome it is called a

(A) Macrophage
(B) Microphage
(C) Prophage
(D) Lytic-phage

Q:43: __________are small naked fragments of RNA that infect plant cells.

(A) Prions
(B) Prophages
(C) Macrophages
(D) Viroids

Q:44: Viruses that cause lysis in host cells are called

(A) Temperate viruses
(B) Phagocytic viruses
(C) Virulent viruses
(D) Infectious viruses

Q:45:Which of the following is not a viral disease

(A) Mumps
(B) Measles
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Diphtheria

Q:46: Copying the HIV virus' nucleic acid depends on

(A) Replicase
(B) Reverse transcriptase
(C) Transcriptase
(D) Reverse replicase

Q:47: The first virus to be purified was the

(A) Flu virus
(B) Tobacco mosaic virus
(C) Smallpox virus
(D) Polio virus

Q:48: When a virus kills the infected host cell in which it is replicating, the reproductive cycle is called a ________cycle.

(A) Lysogenic
(B) Phagocytic
(C) Lytic
(D) Endocytic

Q:49: Which of the following are NOT matched correctly:

(A) Virulent virus-lytic cycle
(B) Temperate virus-non-infecting virus
(C) Lysogenic virus-genome becomes part of host genome
(D)Lytic cycle-kills host cell

Q:50: Which of the following is NOT true about viruses

(A) Obligate intracellular parasite
(B)
Contain DNA and RNA
(C) Are acellular
(D) Uses host machinery

Q:51: Which of the following is NOT a virus structure

(A) Capsid
(B) Capsomere
(C) Nucleoprotein
(D) Mitochondria

Q:52: The virus capsid may be described as

(A) Outside protein coat
(B) Phospholipid envelope
(C) Virus protein spike
(D) Nucleoprotein

Q:53: Which is not true? Viruses are classified by

(A) Nucleic acid type
(B) Morphology
(C) Presence of envelope
(D) Type of cytopathic effect

Q:54: What is the distinguishing feature of retroviruses

(A) Encode RNA polymerase
(B) Encode reverse transcriptase
(C) Lack an envelope
(D) DNA virus

Q:55: Which of the following is not a DNA virus

(A) Herpes virus
(B) Hepatitis B virus
(C) Rabies virus
(D) Bacteriophage virus

Q:56: Which virus is transmitted by faecal oral route

(A) Influenza virus
(B) Rabies virus
(C) Hepatitis A virus
(D) Dengue virus

Q:57: Which of the following organs do hepatitis viruses infect

(A) Lungs
(B) Gut
(C) Muscles
(D) Liver

Q:58:Which hepatitis virus is parentally transmitted?

(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis C
(C) Hepatitis E
(D) Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E

Q:59: HIV is not transmitted by

(A) Sexual contact
(B) Parental route
(C) Vertical transmission
(D) Oro-faecal route

Q:60: Margulis and Schwartz renamed Whittaker’s kingdom Protista as

(A) Prokaryotae
(B) Plantae
(C) Protoctista
(D) Eukaryotae

Q:61: The basic unit of classification is

(A) Genus
(B) Kingdom
(C) Family
(D) Species

Q:62: Viruses are denied a kingdom of their own because

(A) They are too poorly understood
(B) They are too small
(C) Their genetics cannot be determined
(D) They are not organisms

Q:63: Prokaryotic organisms make up the

(A) Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Protists
(B) Archaebacteria and Protists
(C) Protists and Eubacteria
(D) Eubacteria, Archaebacteria and cyanobacteria

Q:64: In printed scientific names, only the _______________ is capitalized.

(A) Kingdom
(B) Family
(C) Genus
(D) Species

Q:65: Viruses range in size from

(A) 20 nm to 250 nm
(B) 50nm to 400 nm
(C) 100 nm to 200 nm
(D) 50 nm to 300 nm

Q:66: Common cold is caused by






(A) Arbo virus

(B) Rhabdo virus
(C) Rhino virus
(D) Herpes virus

Q:67: Measles and mumps are caused by

(A) Rhino virus
(B) Paramyxo virus
(C) Rhabdo virus
(D) Arbo virus

Q:68: Hepatitis-B viral genome contain

(A) 259 nucleotides
(B) 459 nucleotides
(C) 359 nucleotides
(D) 159 nucleotides

Q:69: The immune system protects the body from disease. Because the AIDS virus weakens the immune system

(A) People with AIDS are more vulnerable to other diseases
(B) The AIDS virus is spread very easily
(C) People with AIDS are immune to all other diseases
(D) All of the above

Q:70: Viruses are symmetrical in structure. We know this because they can be

(A) Un-enveloped
(B) Ionized
(C) Crystallized
(D) Both A and C

Q:71: Once bound to the cell surface, the virus must enter

(A) The genetic material into the cell
(B) The capsid into the host cell
(C) The envelope into the host cell
(D) All of these

Q:72: The transmission of virus from host to progeny is

(A) Vertical transmission
(B) Horizontal transmission
(C) Both A and B
(D) A or B

Q:73: Some RNA viruses have no DNA stage. Messenger RNA is synthesized from an RNA template. These viruses are

(A) Plus strand RNA viruses
(B) Minus strand RNA viruses
(C) Bacteriophages
(D) Variola viruses

Q:74: The phage reproductive cycle that kills the bacterial host cell is a _____ cycle, and a phage that always reproduces this way is a ______ phage.

(A) Lysogenic ... Temperate
(B) Virulent ... Lytic
(C) Lysogenic……Virulent
(D) Lytic……. Virulent

Q:75: Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses, is the process by which

(A) RNA is duplicated
(B) DNA is duplicated
(C) RNA information is copied into DNA
(D) DNA information is copied into RNA

Q:76: Electrophoresis is used to

(A) Match a gene with its function
(B) Clone genes
(C) Separate fragments of DNA
(D) Cut DNA into fragments

Q:77: Cycle A is the _____ cycle and cycle B is the _____ cycle.















(A) Lytic....... Lysogenic
(B) Repressor ....... Phage
(C) Lysogenic ….. Lytic
(D) Repressor….. Lysogenic

Q:78: The pointer is indicating the virus's



































(A) Envelope
(B) Capsid
(C) Contractile sheath
(D) Tail

Q:79: Hepatitis A is caused by


(A) Enveloped RNA virus
(B) Enveloped DNA virus
(C) Un-enveloped RNA virus
(D) Un-enveloped DNA virus

Q:80: Colorado Tick fever is caused by

(A) Double stranded RNA virus
(B) Single stranded RNA virus
(C) Double stranded DNA virus
(D) Single stranded DNA virus










Answer Key =>

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. D
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. B
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. B
55. C
56. C
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. C
61. D
62. D
63. D
64. C
65. A
66. C
67. B
68. C
69. A
70. C
71. A
72. A
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. A
78. A
79. C
80. A







Saturday, January 16, 2010

MCQ TEST Chapter=1 "HOMEOSTASIS"

Q:1: Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a constant _______________environment despite _________________ conditions.

(A) External, internal

(B) Internal, external

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Q:2: Homeostasis is based on

(A) Thermoregulation only

(B) Catabolism

(C) Feed back mechanism

(D) Anabolism

Q:3: Two major control centers for homeostasis are

(A) Exocrine and Endocrine glands

(B) Apocrine and Heterocrine glands

(C) Receptors and Effectors

(D) Brain and Endocrine glands

Q:4: Which of the following activity is regulated by Homeostasis

(A) Temperature

(B) Water balance

(C) Blood sugar level

(D) All A, B and C

Q:5: what should be the "Regulator" in this chart?














(A) Medulla oblangata
(B) Pituitary gland

(C) Spinal cord

(D) Hypothalamus

Q:6: What are the components of feed back mechanism?

(A) Receptors, Insulators, Effectors

(B) Receptors, Suppressors, Effectors

(C) Receptors, Regulators, Effectors

(D) Receptors, Depressors, Effectors

Q:7: A cell is placed in a solution and swells. This solution is

(A) Isotonic to cell

(B) Hypertonic to cell

(C) Hypotonic to cell

(D) None of these

Q:8: In an isotonic solution there would be

(A) No net movement of water

(B) Net movement of water into the cell

(C) Net movement of water out of the cell

(D) Bursting of the cell

Q:9: A cell whose internal salt concentration is 0.3 /liter is placed in a solution having salt concentration 0.5 /liter. The solution is

(A) Isotonic to the cell

(B) Hypotonic to the cell

(C) Hypertonic to cell

(D) None of these

Q:10: Osmosis is defined as

(A) Flow of solvent (water) through Semipermeable membrane from higher to less
Concentrated solution

(B) Flow of solvent (water) through Semipermeable membrane from less to higher
Concentrated solution

(C) Flow of a solute from a Semipermeable membrane

(D) Flow of water without membrane
Q:11: Plasmolysis of a human red blood cell would occur if the cell were

(A) In an isotonic solution

(B) In a hypertonic solution

(C) In a hypotonic solution

(D) None of the above

Q:12: When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic environment, it will

(A) Undergo cytolysis

(B) Undergo plasmolysis

(C) Be at equilibrium

(D) Its turgor pressure decreases

Q:13: The contractile vacuole of a paramecium should be active when the paramecium is in

(A) An isotonic environment

(B) A hypotonic environment

(C) A hypertonic environment

(D) Any environment

Q:14: The tendency of a solution to take up water when separated from pure water by a selectively permeable membrane is called

(A) Osmotic pressure

(B) Turgor pressure

(C) Diffusion pressure deficit

(D) Water potential

Q:15: Xerophytes have

(A) Deep roots for water uptake

(B) Succulent stems for storage of water

(C) Few stomata to limit water loss

(D) All A, B and C

Q:16: A plant without cuticle in leaves and stem, having increased number of stomata, partially or completely submerged in water is

(A) Mesophyte

(B) Hydrophyte

(C) Both A and B

(D) Halophyte

Q:17: The entry of water from salty soil into the roots of halophytes takes place because the root cells of halophytes develop

(A) High water potential

(B) Low osmotic pressure

(C) Low water potential

(D) All of these

Q:18: ______________ are animals that do not adjust their internal osmolarity and are isotonic with their environment .

(A) Osmoconformers

(B) Osmoregulators

(C) Thermoregulators

(D) Thermoconfermors

Q:19: ______________ are animals that are not isotonic with their environment and have developed mechanisms to regulate their internal solute and water concentrations.

(A) Osmoconformers

(B) Osmoregulators

(C) Thermoregulators

(D) Both A and B

Q:20: What is correct for diagram below?














(A) Cell "A" will lose H2O, Cell "B" will gain H2O, Cell "C" neither gain nor loses H2O
(B) Cell "A" neither gain nor loses H2O, Cell "B" will gain H2O, Cell "C" will lose H2O

(C) Cell "A" will gain, Cell "B" neither gain nor loses H2O, Cell "C" will lose H2O

(D) Cell "A" will gain H2O, Cell "B" will lose H2O, Cell "C" neither gain nor loses H2O

Q:21: An increase in blood sugar level triggers the release of the hormone insulin by the pancreas, the hormone insulin lowers blood sugar level restoring the body to its original blood glucose level by converting glucose to glycogen. This is an example of

(A) Positive feed back

(B) Negative feed back

(C) Homeostatic imbalance

(D) None of these

Q:22: A fish in fresh water

(A) Produces dilute urine

(B) Have a hypertonic body

(C) Produces concentrated urine

(D) A and B

Q:23: Sea water is _________________________ to Hag-fishes.

(A) Isotonic

(B) Hypotonic

(C) Hypertonic

(D) None of these

Q:24: A fish in marine water

(A) Produces concentrated urine

(B) Have a hypotonic body

(C) Produces dilute urine

(D) A and B

Q:25: Metabolic water is

(A) Water outside the cells of animals

(B) Produced by oxidation of fats

(C) Useful to desert mammals

(D) B and C

Q:26: Plants do not excrete ammonia, urea and uric acid because

(A) They lack nitrogenous compounds

(B) Their metabolism is protein based

(C) Their nitrogenous products are recycled

(D) All A, B and C

Q:27: Plants excrete

(A) Excess water

(B) Excess oxygen

(C) Excess carbon dioxide

(D) All A, B and C

Q:28: Which one of the following has maximum toxicity?

(A) Ammonia

(B) Urea

(C) Uric acid
(D) Creatinine

Q:29: Which one of the following has medium toxicity?

(A) Ammonia

(B) Urea

(C) Uric acid

(D) Water

Q:30: Which one of the following has least toxicity?

(A) Ammonia

(B) Urea

(C) Uric acid

(D) All are highly toxic

Q:31: Guttation takes place through

(A) Stomata

(B) Injured tissue

(C) Lenticels

(D) Hydathodes

Q:32: The excretory organs of Planaria are known as

(A) Protonephridia

(B) Flame cells

(C) Both A and B

(D) Metanephridia

Q:33: Tubular excretory system of Earth worm consist of

(A) Protonephridia
(B) Coxal glands
(C) Malpighian tubules

(D) Metanephridia

Q:34: The internal opening of the metanephridium is known as

(A) Nephrostome

(B) Nephridiopore

(C) Excretory pore

(D) All A, B and C

Q:35: Liver Synthesize

(A) Non-essential aminoacids
(B) Plasma proteins

(C) Cholesterol

(D) All A, B and C

Q:36: In humans, excess nitrogen is eliminated from the body by mainly converting it to

(A) Urea
(B) Uric acid

(C) Ammonia

(D) Amine phosphate

Q:37: The liver is

(A) Smallest internal organ

(B) Medium-sized internal organ

(C) Body's largest internal organ

(D) All options are incorrect

Q:38: The three major body fuels managed by the liver are
(A) Protein, vitamins, and minerals

(B) Carbohydrate, fat, and protein

(C) Glucose, fructose, and sucrose

(D) Glucose, iron, and protein

Q:39: Pigments found in bile are formed during ______________ catabolism
(A) Haem catabolism

(B) Globin catabolism

(C) Cholesterol Catabolism

(D) Both A and C

Q:40: The nephron is

(A) The site of urine storage

(B) The functional unit of the kidney

(C) The site where ADH is produced
(D) Also called the "Bowman's capsule"

Q:41: From the distal convoluted tubule, filtrate will then be carried to the:

(A) Renal corpuscle

(B) Collecting duct

(C) Nephron loop
(D) Proximal convoluted tubule

Q:42: All of the following are normally found in urine except

(A) Sodium ions

(B) Uric acid
(C) Creatinine

(D) Glucose

Q:43: _______________ hormone regulates the transfer of sodium from the nephron to the blood.

(A) Parathormone

(B) Anti-diuretic

(C) Aldosterone

(D) Vasopression

Q:44: Conversion of ammonia into urea, occurs in

(A) Kidneys
(B) Lungs

(C) Intestine

(D) Liver

Q:45: Separation of amino acid into amino and carboxyl group is known as

(A) Amination

(B) Excretion
(C) Deamination

(D) Egestion

Q:46: Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous waste material in the excretory system of

(A) Reptiles

(B) Birds

(C) Insects

(D) All of these

Q:47: Which of the following is not structure of kidney

(A) Cortex

(B) Medulla

(C) Pelvis

(D) Ureth
Q:48: In mammalian kidney, the pyramids are seen in

(A) Cortex

(B) Medulla

(C) Pelvis

(D) Hilus

Q:49: The number of nephrons in ONE kidney of man is

(A) 4 million

(B) 2 million

(C) 8 million

(D) 1 million

Q:50: ADH increases __________ of ___________ from the collecting duct.

(A) Absorption, sodium

(B) Diffusion, chlorine

(C) Absorption, water

(D) Diffusion, Ammonia

Q:51: Two counter-current systems are formed in the kidney by the

(A) Henle’s loop and PCT

(B) Henle’s loop and DCT

(C) Henle’s loop and Collecting duct

(D) Henle’s loop and Vasa rectae

Q:52: Cholesterol is excreted in the

(A) Sebum
(B) Bile

(C) Sweat
(D) Both A and B
Q:53: Malpighian body is composed of

(A) Bowman’s capsule only

(B) Glomerulus only

(C) Bowman’s capsule & Glomerulus

(D) Henle’s loop and Vasa rectae

Q:54: Daily urine output of man is

(A) 1-2 liters

(B) 1-3 liters

(C) 1-4 liters

(D) 1-5 liters

Q:55: Tubular structure which carries urine from bladder to outside

(A) Ureter

(B) Hilus

(C) Pelvis

(D) Urethra
Q:56: Ultrafiltration occurs in

(A) Bowman’s capsule

(B) Proximal convoluted tube

(C) Henle’s loop

(D) Distal convoluted tube

Q:57: The greater the demand of conserving water, the greater would be the number of

(A) Juxta-medullary nephrons

(B) Cortical nephrons

(C) Capillaries of glomerulus
(D) Both A and B

Q:58 : Each kidney is enclosed by a thin membranous covering called

(A) Peritonium

(B) Peritreme

(C) Perizonium

(D) All A, B and C

Q:59: pH of human urine is

(A) 7.4

(B) 3.5

(C) 5.00

(D) 8.00

Q:60: The hormone which increases the reabsorption of calcium ions in nephron is

(A) Aldosterone

(B) Parathormone

(C) Anti-diuretic

(D) Vasopression

Q:61: The process by which some poisonous substances are secreted from preitubular capillaries into nephric filtrate is termed as

(A) Tubular reabsorption

(B) Tubular secretion

(C) Counter-current exchange

(D) None of these

Q:62: It is a cyclic process of enzymatic reactions which operates in the liver cells as result of which urea is formed from ammonia, carbondioxide and NH2 group

(A) Ornithine cycle

(B) Citruline cycle

(C) Arginine cycle

(D) All of these

Q:63: Select the correct for nitrogenous wastes in this diagram
















(A) "A" Urea "B" Ammonia "C" Uric acid

(B) "A" Uric acid "B" Ammonia "C" Urea

(C) "A" Ammonia "B" Urea "C" Uric acid

(D) "A" Ammonia "B" Uric acid "C" Urea

Q:64: Blood enters the kidney through a branch of the aorta called

(A) Afferent arteriole

(B) Renal artery

(C) Efferent arteriole

(D) Renal vein

Q:65: A capillary tuft from which fluid leaves the circulatory system.

(A) Bowman's capsule

(B) Proximal convoluted tube

(C) Glomerulus

(D) Loop of Henle

Q:66: In ectotherms and endotherms heat can be lost through

(A) Evaporation

(B) Radiation

(C) Convection

(D) All A, B and C

Q:67: About _______% of kidney stones are composed of Calcium oxalate or phosphate.

(A) 5%

(B) 20%

(C) 70%

(D) 90%

Q:68: About _______% of kidney stones are composed of Uric acid.

(A) 5%

(B) 20%

(C) 70%

(D) 90%

Q:69: Dialysis cleans the blood by

(A) An artificial kidney

(B) Filtering it within abdomen

(C) Removing glucose from blood

(D) Both A and B

Q:70: Haemodialysis means

(A) Removing the blood

(B) Cleaning the blood

(C) Diluting the blood

(D) All options are correct

Q:71: These are animals that produce metabolic heat at low rates and rely primarily on thermal conditions of their surroundings.

(A) Endotherms
(B) Heterotherms

(C) Ectotherms

(D) Both B and C

Q:72: These are animals capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production, but they generally do not regulate body temperature within as narrow a range as endotherms.

(A) Ectotherms

(B) Poikilotherms

(C) Heterotherms

(D) None of these

Q:73: It is technique of breaking kidney stones inside kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder

(A) Lithotrophy

(B) Lithography

(C) Lithotripsy
(D) All options are correct

Q:74: Mammals maintain their body temperature within a range of

(A) 25 C˚ to 35 C˚

(B) 30 C˚ to 40 C˚

(C) 36 C˚ to 43 C˚
(D) 36 C˚ to 38 C˚

Q:75: Birds maintain their body temperature within a range of

(A) 25 C˚ to 35 C˚

(B) 30 C˚ to 40 C˚

(C) 41 C˚ to 43 C˚

(D) 36 C˚ to 38 C˚

Q:76: Regulation of body temperature in homiotherms during high environmental temperature involve

(A) Vaso-dilation

(B) Lowering the hairs

(C) Reduction in sub-cutaneous fat

(D) All A, B and C


Q:77: Regulation of body temperature in homiotherms during cold environmental temperature involve

(A) Vaso-constriction

(B) Erection of hairs

(C) Increase in sub-cutaneous fat

(D) All A, B and C

Q:78: _____________ displace the set point of hypothalamus above the normal point of 37 C˚

(A) Pyrenins

(B) Pyridoxins

(C) Pyrogens

(D) All A, B and C

Q:79: An animal when taken into hot area looses heat by sweating and when to cold area increases muscular activity to produce more heat. The animal in this thought is

(A) Homiothermic

(B) Poikilothermic

(C) Ectothermic

(D) None of these

Q:80: Which cycle is shown in this diagram































(A) Ornithine cycle

(B) Urea cycle

(C) Urine cycle

(D) Both A and B




Answer Key:>


1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. A
35. D
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. D
45. C
46. D
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. C
51. D
52. B
53. C
54. A
55. D
56. A
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. C
66. D
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. C
74. D
75. C
76. D
77. D
78. C
79. A
80. D