MCQ TEST Chapter # 5 “GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT”

No: of Items: 70

Q:1: Gradual growth through a series of progressive changes is called


(A) Growth (B) Development
(C) Cleavage (D) Transduction


Q:2: The study of developmental changes is known as


(A) Embryology (B) Developmental biology
(C) Both A and B (D) Chrono-biology


Q3: As a fertilized egg develops into an embryo, it undergoes


(A) One meiotic cell division, only (B) Many meiotic cell divisions
(C) One mitotic cell division, only (D) Many mitotic cell divisions


Q:4: Undifferentiated tissue from which new cells are formed, as at the tip of a stem or root.


(A) Meristele (B) Merithallus
(C) Meristem (D) All a, b and c


Q:5: Primary growth depends upon activity of


(A) Apical meristem (B) Secondary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) Vascular cambium


Q:6: Secondary growth is made possible by the _____________ which increases the girth of plant.


(A) Primary meristem (B) Apical meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above


Q:7: In ________ plants whole body is capable of growth.


(A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Bryophyta (D) All of these.


Q:8: The correct sequence of growth phases in plants is


(A) Elongation-Formative-Maturation (B) Maturation-Elongation-Formative
(C) Formative-Maturation-Elongation (D) Formative-Elongation-Maturation


Q:9: During elongation phase the cells become enlarged due to


(A) Transpiration pressure (B) Plasmolytic pressure
(C) Turgor pressure (D) Both B and C


Q:10: During which phase the elongated cells are modified into permanent cells.


(A) Formative phase (B) Elongation phase
(C) Both A and B (D) Maturation phase


Q:11: The growth in diameter is called


(A) Primary growth (B) Secondary growth
(C) Apical growth (D) Intercalary growth


Q:12: During secondary growth xylem rings are produced on the __________ side of dividing cambium.


(A) Inner side (B) Outer side
(C) Both inner and outer sides (D) None of these


Q:13: During secondary growth phloem rings are produced on the __________ side of dividing cambium.


(A) Inner side (B) Outer side
(C) Both inner and outer sides (D) None of these


Q:14: In a cross section of a tree or log, one of the ribbons of tissue extending radially from the pith form


(A) Cortical rays (B) Necrotic rays
(C) Medullary rays (D) All A, B and C


Q:15: Most of the enzymes work optimally in between


(A) 25° C to 37° C (B) 35° C to 45° C
(C) 5° C to 20° C (D) 10° C to 25° C


Q:16: At high temperature the rate of growth stops due to


(A) Excessive transpiration (B) Enzyme loss
(C) Both A and B (D) All of the choices are incorrect


Q:17: In plants red light favours


(A) Elongation of cells (B) Maturation of cells
(C) Formation of cells (D) Division of cells


Q:18: Generally, light influences growth by


(A) Intensity (B) Quality
(C) Duration (D) All A, B and C


Q:19: A metabolic pathway that consumes O2, releases co2, generates no ATP and decreases photosynthetic output is


(A) Photoperiodism (B) Photorespiration
(C) Photophosphorylation (D) Photoreactivation


Q:20: The internal factors that influence the growth of plants are


(A) Hormones (B) Genes
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these


Q:21: _________are parts of apical meristem which have become separated from the apex by permanent tissues.


(A) Primary meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above


Q:22: One of the most important correlative effects in plants is
(A) Morphogenesis (B) Apical dominance
(C) De-differentiation (D) Re-differentiation


Q:23: The removal of apex releases the lateral buds from apical dominance, it is known as


(A) Inhibitory effect (B) Reciprocal effect
(C) Compensatory effect (D) Apical effect

Q:24: During the process of ________ the miniature seedling comes and enter the second phase ___________.


(A) Fertilization, Development (B) Fertilization, Cleavage
(C) Germination, Growth (D) Cleavage, Differentiation


Q:25: The correct sequence of process of development after fertilization and cleavage is


(A) Gastrulation-Organogenesis-Growth (B) Organogenesis-Gastrulation-Growth
(C) Gastrulation-Blastulation-Growth (D) Organogenesis-Morulation-Blastulation


Q:26: It is series of mitotic cell division that changes zygote into multicellular embryo


(A) Gastrulation (B) Gametogenesis
(C) Blastulation (D) Cleavage


Q:27: Cell divisions, migrations, and rearrangements produce three germ layers in


(A) Morulation (B) Blastulation
(C) Gastrulation (D) All, A, B and C


Q:28: The egg of Hen is


(A) Alecithal (B) Meolecithal
(C) Mesolecithal (D) Polylecithal


Q:29: In Hen the egg is released from the ovary as


(A) Primary oocyte (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Ootid (D) None of these


Q:30: In Hen the egg is fertilized at the stage of


(A) Primary oocyte (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Ootid (D) Both A and B


Q:31: During development of chick the fertilized egg is laid __________ hours after the fertilization.


(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 45


Q:32: After ________days of incubation, the chick finally begins its escape from the shell.


(A) 16 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21


Q:33: The pattern of cleavage in which only part of the ovum is divided into cells. It is also called incomplete cleavage and is usually observed in embryos with large amounts of yolk.


(A) Meroblastic cleavage (B) Discoidal cleavage
(C) Holoblastic cleavage (D) Both A and B


Q:34: The divided germinal disc of a megalecithal egg forms a layer of cells termed as


(A) Blastoderm (B) Blastocoel
(C) Blastocyst (D) Both A and C


Q:35: The peripheral region of the chick blastodisc surrounding the area pellucida and in direct contact with the yolk is


(A) Area ascarosida (B) Area vitellina
(C) Area opaca (D) Area vasculosa


Q:36: One of a pair of twisted, cords of albumen found at each of an egg, joining the shell membrane to the yolk and supporting the yolk centrally within the shell is


(A) Nucellus (B) Chalaza
(C) Choenoderm (D) Latebra

Q:37: The central region of blastodisc is known as


(A) Area pellucida (B) Area vitellina
(C) Area opaca (D) Area vasculosa


Q:38: Animals begin their lives as a single, diploid cell called


(A) Zygote (B) Embryo
(C) Gastrula (D) All A, B and C


Q:39: Increase in size of organs to attain maturity is called


(A) Differentiation (B) Localization
(C) Growth (D) Both B and C


Q:40: Cells of the blastoderm surface migrate posteriorly and medially and involute (turn in) along a line called the


(A) Hypoblast (B) Germinal disc
(C) Primitive streak (D) Latebra


Q:41: Due to the migration of mesodermal cells from the epiblast, a groove is
formed known as


(A) Neural groove (B) Primitive groove
(C) Somatopleure (D) Splanchnopleure


Q:42: The hypoblast is mainly presumptive


(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm (D) Blastoderm


Q:43: The membrane composed of ectoderm and somatic mesoderm is known as


(A) Somatopleure (B) Splanchnopleure
(C) Visceralopleure (D) All of these


Q:44: The cellular layer consisting of splanchnic mesoderm and endoderm is known as


(A) Somatopleure (B) Splanchnopleure
(C) Visceralopleure (D) Parietopleure


Q:45: The lateral plate mesoderm is differentiated into 2 sheet like layers i.e. somatic mesoderm and


(A) Chorda mesoderm (B) Proper mesoderm
(C) Splanchnic mesoderm (D) Dermatogenic mesoderm


Q:46: In chick gastrula ____________ and ____________ formation do not occur.


(A) Somatopleure, Splanchnopleure (B) Primitive streak, Dorsal lip
(C) Invagination, Archentron (D) Primitive streak, Ventral lip


Q:47: Mesomere somite gives rise


(A) Digestive system (B) Muscles
(C) Skeleton (D) Excretory system


Q:48: Muscles, axial skeleton and connective tissues are differentiated from


(A) Epimeres (B) Mesomere
(C) Hypomere (D) Endoderm


Q:49: Coelom is formed from


(A) Epimere (B) Hypomere
(C) Mesomere (D) None of these

Q:50: In 24 hours chick embryo the foldings of neural plate are clearly visible. At this stage embryo is called


(A) Morula (B) Blastula
(C) Neurula (D) Blastocyst


Q:51: A tube of tissue formed by a thickening and rolling up of the neural plate during embryonic neurulation. It will later form the brain and spinal cord of the animal. This is called
(A) Neurocoel (B) Neural groove
(C) Neurospore (D) Neural tube


Q:52: _______is the process of selection of activation of some genes by a cell, which are not activated by other cells of the embryo.


(A) Cell induction (B) Cell transformation
(C) Cell differentiation (D) Cell mediation


Q:53: When the primitive streak reaches its maximum length, the cells of the most anterior region of the streak appear morphologically distinct. This region is known as


(A) Node of Raniver (B) Schwan's node
(C) Henson's node (D) None of these


Q:54: Mechanism of differentiation depends up on ____________ organization of unfertilized egg.


(A) Homogenous (B) Heterogeneous
(C) Exogenous (D) All A, B and C


Q:55: The situation where one embryonic tissue influences an other so that the responding tissue differentiates is known as


(A) Instruction (B) Evocation
(C) Induction (D) None of these


Q:56: The control development of cap in Acetabularia is through production of developmentally active substance in


(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm
(C) Gray crescent (D) Both A and B


Q:57: The technique of producing a genetically identical copy of an organism by replacing the nucleus of an unfertilized ovum with the nucleus of a body cell from the organism is


(A) Test tube baby (B) Cloning
(C) In vitro fertilization (D) All A, B and C


Q:58: The study of degenerative changes in aging is called


(A) Developmental biology (B) Paedology
(C) Gerontology (D) Choronology


Q:59: The science of studying and treating malformations and monstrosities of organisms is called


(A) Gerontology (B) Teratology
(C) Dermatology (D) Etiology


Q:60: The normal process of development is disturbed by abnormalities. These abnormalities are due to


(A) Abnormal functioning of glands (B) Abnormal Chromosomal number
(C) UV radiations (D) All of these

Q:61: In birds and mammals regeneration is mostly limited to the small wounds by the formation of a new tissue


(A) Callus (B) Scar
(C) Serous (D) None of these
Q:62: Notochord is formed from


(A) Epimeres (B) Mesomeres
(C) Hypomeres (D) Henson’s node


Q:63: A condition in which heart is present towards right side of the chest is called


(A) Sinistrocardia (B) Dextrocardia
(C) Laterocardia (D) Both A and B


Q:64: Decreased ability or inability of blood to clot is


(A) Thalassemia (B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Haemophilia (D) Haemolysis


Q:65: Turner’s syndrome is


(A) Female sexual defect (B) Male sexual defect
(C) Autosomal recessive trait (D) Infectious disorder


Q:66: A condition characterized by split in the upper lip and gap in the roof of
mouth is


(A) Microcephaly (B) Polydactyly
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Cleft palate


Q:67: Which one of the following is correct about Thalassemia


(A) Decreased clotting ability (B) Increased clotting ability
(C) Abnormal sickle shaped RBC (D) Fragile RBC cause hemolytic anemia


Q:68: Which one of the following is correct about Microcephaly


(A) Small skull (B) Five fingers
(C) Gap in the roof of the mouth (D) Upper lip folded


Q:69: Gray crescent is present in


(A) Eye of frog (B) Retina of cockroach
(C) Brain of frog (D) Zygote of frog


Q:70: The flowering process is a _____________ response.
(A) Phototropic (B) Photoperiodic
(C) Gravitropic (D) Thigmotropic





Answer Key:




1. B
2.C
3.D
4.C
5.A
6. C
7. C
8.D
9. C
10.D
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. B
20.C
21. B
22. B
23. C
24.C
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. D
52.C
53. C
54. B
55. C
56.A
57. B
58.C
59.B
60.D
61. B
62.D
63.B
64. C
65. A
66.D
67.D
68. A
69. D
70.B