Friday, April 1, 2011

MCQ Test Chapter # 6 DNA and Chromosomes

No: of Items: 85

Q:1: The term chromosome was coined by German embryologist

(A) Ernest Hackle (B) Walter Fleming

(C) Schwann (D) Schleiden

Q:2: ___________ are DNA threads which appear inside the nucleus at the time of cell division.

(A) Spindle fibers (B) Centrioles

(C) Asters (D) Chromosomes

Q:3: The chromosomes are composed of

(A) DNA (B) Histone proteins

(C) RNA (D) All A, B and C

Q:4: Walter Fleming, stained some cells with ______________, to see how chromosomes would look under the microscope.

(A) Perkin's dye (B) Iodine Dye

(C) Methyl blue Dye (D) All A, B and C

Q:5: What is diploid number of chromosomes in Mosquito.

(A) 4 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 12

Q:6: What is diploid number of chromosomes in Sugar cane.

(A) 20 (B) 40

(C) 80 (D) 60

Q:7: What is diploid number of chromosomes in Frog.

(A) 26 (B) 28

(C) 24 (D) 20

Q:8: What is diploid number of chromosomes in Fern.

(A) 1000 (B) 500

(C) 400 (D) 200

Q:9: Which of the following human cells contains 23 chromosomes

(A) Zygote (B) Normal liver cell

(C) Skin cell of female (D) An ovum

Q:10: Sister chromatids are attached at an area called the

(A) Centrosome (B) Centriole

(C) Centromere (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:11: The chromatids of two different chromosomes are called

(A) Sister chromatids (B) Non-sister chromatids

(C) Chromonemata (D) Kinetochore

Q:12: Whose karyotype is shown in following diagram

(A) Human Male (B) Human female

(C) Person with Down syndrome (D) Female with Turners syndrome

Q:13: DNA threads of chromosomes are termed as

(A) Chromonema (B) Plasmodesmata

(C) Chiasmata (D) Kinetochore

Q:14: Centromere contain a disc shaped protein _______________ to which the spindle fibers are attached.

(A) Chiasmata (B) Pellicle

(C) Kinetochore (D) Perkin's Aniline

Q:15: A pair of morphologically similar chromosomes is known as

(A) Homologous chromosomes (B) Heterologous chromosomes

(C) X and Y male chromosomes (D) Both A, and C

Q:16: _________________________ is a non-sex chromosome.

(A) An autosome (B) Desmosome

(C) Y chromosome (D) Both A and B

Q:17: A ______________________ is the characteristic chromosome complement of a eukaryote species.

(A) Biotype (B) Cytotype

(C) Karyotype (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:18: ­­­­_______________ chromosomes have arms of equal length with the centromere in the middle.

(A) Submetacentric (B) Acrocentric

(C) Telocentric (D) Metacentric

Q:19: _______________ chromosomes have short and long arms of unequal length with the centromere more towards one end.

(A) Submetacentric (B) Telocentric

(C) Metacentric (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:20: ___________________ chromosomes have a centromere very near to one end and have very small short arms.

(A) Acrocentric (B) Telocentric

(C) Metacentric (D) Submetacentric

Q:21: The most abundant chromosomal proteins are called

(A) Scaffold (B) Polymerases

(C) Histones (D) None of these

Q:22: Highly condensed and transcriptionally inactive DNA form

(A) Heterochromatin (B) Euchromatin

(C) Autochromatin (D) Isochromatin

Q:23: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA?

(A) Composed of nucleotides (B) Complementary

(C) Contains ribose (D) Double-stranded

Q:24: If the strand of DNA from a single chromosome were laid out in a straight line, it would be more than

(A) 4 feet (B) 5feet

(C) 5 meters (D) 7 feet

Q:25: The DNA duplex in a chromosome is coiled around a core of 8 histone proteins every 200 nucleotides , forming a complex called

(A) Nucleosome (B) Supercoil

(C) Spireme (D) Kinetochore

Q:26: “Chromosomes play central role in heredity”, it was first suggested in 1900 by

(A) Karl Correns (B) McCarthy

(C) Messelson (D) Joshua Ryan

Q:27: The chromosomal theory of heredity was first formulated by

(A) Karl Correns (B) McCarthy

(C) Messelson (D) Walter Sutton

Q:28: Which chromosome pair below best illustrates the gene-chromosome theory?

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

Q:29: The result of Hershey and Chase's T2 experiments showed that the _____ of the virus enters the host where viral replication takes place.

(A) Protein (B) DNA

(C) RNA (D) Both Protein and DNA

Q:30: Hershey and Chase used radioactive _____ to label the DNA core of the bacteriophage.

(A) Phosphorous (B) Nitrogen

(C) Carbon (D) Sulfur

Q:31: In Griffith's experiment

(A) Heat-killed S strain bacteria killed the mice

(B) R strain bacteria killed the mice

(C) A mixture of heat-killed S strain bacteria and R strain bacteria failed to kill the mice

(D) Live S strain bacteria killed the mice

Q:32: What are base-pairing rules for DNA?

(A) A=G, T≡C (B) A=C, T≡G

(C) A=U, C≡G (D) A=T, G≡C

Q:33: A DNA strand having the sequence C-G-A-T-T-G would be complementary to the sequence

(A) C-G-A-T-T-G (B) T-A-G-C-C-T

(C) G-G-T-A-A-G (D) G-C-T-A-A-C

Q:34: In the DNA Double Helix, complementary base pairs are held together by

(A) Peptide bonds (B) Ionic bonds

(C) Hydrogen bonds (D) N-glycosidic bonds

Q:35: The three pyrimidine bases in Nucleic acids are

(A) Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine (B) Adenine, Thymine and Guanine

(C) Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil (D) Adenine, Uracil and Guanine

Q:36: Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a

(A) Nucleolus (B) Nucleotide

(C) Nucleosome (D) Histone

Q:37: In a nucleic acid, the bases are always attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

(A) 5' (B) 4'

(C) 3' (D) 1'

Q:38: The structure of DNA was described __________________.

(A) In the 1850's (B) In 1900

(C) In the 1950's (D) In 1990

Q:39: Thymine (T) and cytosine (C) have pyridimine bases which have a ________ ring.

(A) Single (B) Double

(C) Triple (D) Both A and B

Q:40: Willikin’s X-ray diffraction of DNA showed that

(A) Purines have base with a double ring (B) A equals T

(C) DNA not proteins is the genetic material (D) DNA is a helix

Q:41: The rungs of ladder (DNA) are the ___________________.

(A) Deoxyribose sugars (B) Phosphate groups

(C) Hydrogen-bonded bases (D) Ribose sugars

Q:42: The fact that DNA was responsible for the production of bacterial capsules in Griffith's experiments was discovered by

(A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarthy (B) Noah Alan and Joshua Ryan

(C) Watson and Crick (D) Messelson and Stahl

Q:43: The diameter of DNA molecule is

(A) 20 A° (B) 50 A°

(C) 100 A° (D) 200 A°

Q:44: Sugar-phosphate backbones make up the _______________ of the ladder (DNA).

(A) Anterior rungs (B) Posterior rungs

(C) Uprights (D) Both uprights and rungs

Q:45: DNA replication is best described as ___________________ .

(A) Completely conservative (B) Semiconservative

(C) A very slow process (D) Error free

Q:46: Replication of DNA requires ____________________.

(A) Unwinding (B) Complementary base pairing

(C) Joining (D) All of the above

Q:47: DNA replication is called Semiconservative because _______________ of the original duplex appears in the duplex formed in replication.

(A) None (B) Most

(C) Half (D) Hardly any

Q:48: DNA replication occurs in the

(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm

(C) Extracellular fluid (D) On the ribosome surface

Q:49: ___________________ is an inherited condition that causes urine to turn black when exposed to air.

(A) Alkaptonuria (B) Phenylketonuria

(C) Diabetes insipidus (D) Diuresis

Q:50: In Human beings the ____________ is whole hereditary information that is encoded in the DNA of 22 pairs of autosome and one pair of sex chromosomes.

(A) Muton (B) Intron

(C) Exon (D) Genome

Q:51: A photographic representation of the chromosomes of a single cell including the number, size and structure of the chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell is termed as

(A) Biotype (B) Karyotype

(C) Cytotype (D) All a, b and c

Q:52: Which two scientists proposed the “one gene-one enzyme” hypothesis?

(A) Watson and Crick (B) Beadle and Tatum

(C) Wilkins and Franklin (D) Hershey and Chase

Q:53: Single large shield shaped cotyledon of monocot seed is called

(A) Coleoptile (B) Coleorhiza

(C) Cotyledon (D) Scutellum

Q:54: Since the X-ray treated mold was able to grow on media enriched with metabolites B, C and D of this metabolic pathway:

A ---1---->B ---2----> C ---3----> D

Where the numbers are enzymes and the letters are metabolites, Beadle and Tatum concluded that the mold lacked enzyme _____________.

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) None of these

Q:55: Fill in the missing portion of this flow diagram:

DNA's nucleotide sequence --> amino acid sequence --> proteins' polypeptides --> _____ --> an organism's structures.

(A) Steroids (B) Enzymes

(C) Polysaccharides (D) RNA

Q:56: There are about ______________ different types of tRNA.

(A) 20 (B) 40

(C) 60 (D) 64

Q:57: The process of gene expression occurs in

(A) Transcription (B) Translation

(C) Both A and B (D) Transduction

Q:58: What name is given to the process in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?

(A) RNA processing (B) Gene expression

(C) Transcription (D) Translation

Q:59: What name is given to the process in which a strand of DNA is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of mRNA?

(A) Polypeptide formation (B) Gene expression

(C) Transcription (D) Translation

Q:60: RNA polymerase uses --------- as a template to synthesize ---------

(A) RNA, protein (B) RNA, DNA

(C) DNA, RNA (D) DNA, protein

Q:61: The tRNA anticodon, GAC, is complementary to the mRNA codon with the sequence ____________ .



Q:62: For 20 different kinds of amino acids there should be

(A) 20 codons (B) 44 codons

(C) 64 codons (D) 40 codons

Q:63: The initiation codon for every gene is



Q:64: There are 20 amino acids normally used in protein synthesis. Based on your knowledge of the genetic code, if there were 80 amino acids used in protein synthesis, what would be the minimum size of a single codon?

(A) 3 nucleotides (B) 4 nucleotides

(C) 5 nucleotides (D) 8 nucleotides

Q:65: The genetic code uses sequence of ____________ nitrogenous bases to encode an amino acid.

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) All A. B and C

Q:66: Codon is present in

(A) mRNA (B) tRNA

(C) rRNA (D) All A. B and C

Q:67: The binding of codon and anticodon is known as

(A) Codation (B) Decodation

(C) Transcription (D) All choices are correct

Q:68: Which of the following is stop codon


(C) UGA (D) All A. B and C

Q:69: A permanent alteration in the DNA of an organism is called a(n)

(A) Mutation (B) Hereditary marker

(C) Replicon (D) Allele

Q:70: What genetic term describes the situation when a part of chromosome is broken off and lost?

(A) Duplication (B) Inversion

(C) Deletion (D) Nondisjunction

Q:71: An exchange of segments between non-homologous chromosomes is called

(A) Inversion (B) Polyploidy

(C) Translocation (D) Transduction

Q:72: What genetic term describes the situation when a part of chromosome may be present in excess to the normal chromosome?

(A) Duplication (B) Inversion

(C) Deletion (D) Nondisjunction

Q:73: Transcription is initiated by an enzyme

(A) DNA-polymerase (B) RNA-polymerase

(C) Endonuclease (D) Exonuclease

Q:74: X-rays and gamma rays are

(A) Non-ionizing radiations (B) Chemical mutagens

(C) High energy mutagens (D) Both B and C

Q:75: Point mutation involves

(A) Deletion of single nitrogenous base

(B) Duplication of single nitrogenous base

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Q:76: If the sequence of two nucleotides is used, then it will only code for ____________ aminoacids.

(A) 8 (B) 16

(C) 44 (D) 64

Q:77: Sickle cell anemia is caused by a change in the amino acid sequence of the two beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule. How many amino acids have been changed in each beta chain, compared to normal hemoglobin?

(A) 1 (B) 5

(C) 10 (D) Hundreds

Q:78: Phenylketonuria is

(A) An eating disorder

(B) A inherited disease that is treated by diet

(C) A neurotransmitter deficiency disease

(D) Caused by an accident after birth

Q:79: __________________ is a chromosome rearrangement in which a segment of a chromosome is reversed end to end.

(A) Duplication (B) Inversion

(C) Deletion (D) Translocation

Q:80: A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed of only the amino acid phenylalanine. What does this experiment indicate?

(A) The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.

(B) UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.

(C) Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.

(D) Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.

Q:81: In the following diagram process A is known as

(A) Transcription (B) Translation

(C) Transduction (D) All a, b and c are correct

Q:82: In the following diagram process B is known as

(A) Transcription (B) Translation

(C) Transduction (D) All a, b and c are correct

Q:83: RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the growing polypeptide is

(A) messenger RNA (B) ribosomal RNA

(C) transfer RNA (D) small nucleolar RNA

Q:84: It occurs in babies who inherit two mutant genes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH). This enzyme normally breaks down molecules of the amino acid phenylalanine that are in excess of the body's needs for protein synthesis

(A) Phenylketonuria (B) Alkaptonuria

(C) Both A and B (D) Sickle cell anemia

Q:85: In sickle cell anemia glutamic acid is replaced by

(A) Threonine (B) Leucine

(C) Histidine (D) Valine

Answer Key:







7. A





























36. B

37. D

38. C

39. A

40. D

41. C

42. A

43. A

44. C

45. B

46. D

47. C

48. A

49. A

50. D

51. B

52. B

53. D

54. A

55. D

56. B

57. C

58. D

59. C

60. C

61. D

62. C

63. A

64. B

65. B

66. A

67. B

68. D

69. A

A 70.

C 71.

C 72.

A 73.

B 74.

C 75.

C 76.

B 77.

A 78.

B 79.

B 80.

B 81.

A 82.

B 83.

C 84.

A 85. D

Saturday, January 15, 2011


No: of Items: 70

Q:1: Gradual growth through a series of progressive changes is called

(A) Growth (B) Development
(C) Cleavage (D) Transduction

Q:2: The study of developmental changes is known as

(A) Embryology (B) Developmental biology
(C) Both A and B (D) Chrono-biology

Q3: As a fertilized egg develops into an embryo, it undergoes

(A) One meiotic cell division, only (B) Many meiotic cell divisions
(C) One mitotic cell division, only (D) Many mitotic cell divisions

Q:4: Undifferentiated tissue from which new cells are formed, as at the tip of a stem or root.

(A) Meristele (B) Merithallus
(C) Meristem (D) All a, b and c

Q:5: Primary growth depends upon activity of

(A) Apical meristem (B) Secondary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) Vascular cambium

Q:6: Secondary growth is made possible by the _____________ which increases the girth of plant.

(A) Primary meristem (B) Apical meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above

Q:7: In ________ plants whole body is capable of growth.

(A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Bryophyta (D) All of these.

Q:8: The correct sequence of growth phases in plants is

(A) Elongation-Formative-Maturation (B) Maturation-Elongation-Formative
(C) Formative-Maturation-Elongation (D) Formative-Elongation-Maturation

Q:9: During elongation phase the cells become enlarged due to

(A) Transpiration pressure (B) Plasmolytic pressure
(C) Turgor pressure (D) Both B and C

Q:10: During which phase the elongated cells are modified into permanent cells.

(A) Formative phase (B) Elongation phase
(C) Both A and B (D) Maturation phase

Q:11: The growth in diameter is called

(A) Primary growth (B) Secondary growth
(C) Apical growth (D) Intercalary growth

Q:12: During secondary growth xylem rings are produced on the __________ side of dividing cambium.

(A) Inner side (B) Outer side
(C) Both inner and outer sides (D) None of these

Q:13: During secondary growth phloem rings are produced on the __________ side of dividing cambium.

(A) Inner side (B) Outer side
(C) Both inner and outer sides (D) None of these

Q:14: In a cross section of a tree or log, one of the ribbons of tissue extending radially from the pith form

(A) Cortical rays (B) Necrotic rays
(C) Medullary rays (D) All A, B and C

Q:15: Most of the enzymes work optimally in between

(A) 25° C to 37° C (B) 35° C to 45° C
(C) 5° C to 20° C (D) 10° C to 25° C

Q:16: At high temperature the rate of growth stops due to

(A) Excessive transpiration (B) Enzyme loss
(C) Both A and B (D) All of the choices are incorrect

Q:17: In plants red light favours

(A) Elongation of cells (B) Maturation of cells
(C) Formation of cells (D) Division of cells

Q:18: Generally, light influences growth by

(A) Intensity (B) Quality
(C) Duration (D) All A, B and C

Q:19: A metabolic pathway that consumes O2, releases co2, generates no ATP and decreases photosynthetic output is

(A) Photoperiodism (B) Photorespiration
(C) Photophosphorylation (D) Photoreactivation

Q:20: The internal factors that influence the growth of plants are

(A) Hormones (B) Genes
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

Q:21: _________are parts of apical meristem which have become separated from the apex by permanent tissues.

(A) Primary meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) None of the above

Q:22: One of the most important correlative effects in plants is
(A) Morphogenesis (B) Apical dominance
(C) De-differentiation (D) Re-differentiation

Q:23: The removal of apex releases the lateral buds from apical dominance, it is known as

(A) Inhibitory effect (B) Reciprocal effect
(C) Compensatory effect (D) Apical effect

Q:24: During the process of ________ the miniature seedling comes and enter the second phase ___________.

(A) Fertilization, Development (B) Fertilization, Cleavage
(C) Germination, Growth (D) Cleavage, Differentiation

Q:25: The correct sequence of process of development after fertilization and cleavage is

(A) Gastrulation-Organogenesis-Growth (B) Organogenesis-Gastrulation-Growth
(C) Gastrulation-Blastulation-Growth (D) Organogenesis-Morulation-Blastulation

Q:26: It is series of mitotic cell division that changes zygote into multicellular embryo

(A) Gastrulation (B) Gametogenesis
(C) Blastulation (D) Cleavage

Q:27: Cell divisions, migrations, and rearrangements produce three germ layers in

(A) Morulation (B) Blastulation
(C) Gastrulation (D) All, A, B and C

Q:28: The egg of Hen is

(A) Alecithal (B) Meolecithal
(C) Mesolecithal (D) Polylecithal

Q:29: In Hen the egg is released from the ovary as

(A) Primary oocyte (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Ootid (D) None of these

Q:30: In Hen the egg is fertilized at the stage of

(A) Primary oocyte (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Ootid (D) Both A and B

Q:31: During development of chick the fertilized egg is laid __________ hours after the fertilization.

(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 45

Q:32: After ________days of incubation, the chick finally begins its escape from the shell.

(A) 16 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21

Q:33: The pattern of cleavage in which only part of the ovum is divided into cells. It is also called incomplete cleavage and is usually observed in embryos with large amounts of yolk.

(A) Meroblastic cleavage (B) Discoidal cleavage
(C) Holoblastic cleavage (D) Both A and B

Q:34: The divided germinal disc of a megalecithal egg forms a layer of cells termed as

(A) Blastoderm (B) Blastocoel
(C) Blastocyst (D) Both A and C

Q:35: The peripheral region of the chick blastodisc surrounding the area pellucida and in direct contact with the yolk is

(A) Area ascarosida (B) Area vitellina
(C) Area opaca (D) Area vasculosa

Q:36: One of a pair of twisted, cords of albumen found at each of an egg, joining the shell membrane to the yolk and supporting the yolk centrally within the shell is

(A) Nucellus (B) Chalaza
(C) Choenoderm (D) Latebra

Q:37: The central region of blastodisc is known as

(A) Area pellucida (B) Area vitellina
(C) Area opaca (D) Area vasculosa

Q:38: Animals begin their lives as a single, diploid cell called

(A) Zygote (B) Embryo
(C) Gastrula (D) All A, B and C

Q:39: Increase in size of organs to attain maturity is called

(A) Differentiation (B) Localization
(C) Growth (D) Both B and C

Q:40: Cells of the blastoderm surface migrate posteriorly and medially and involute (turn in) along a line called the

(A) Hypoblast (B) Germinal disc
(C) Primitive streak (D) Latebra

Q:41: Due to the migration of mesodermal cells from the epiblast, a groove is
formed known as

(A) Neural groove (B) Primitive groove
(C) Somatopleure (D) Splanchnopleure

Q:42: The hypoblast is mainly presumptive

(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm (D) Blastoderm

Q:43: The membrane composed of ectoderm and somatic mesoderm is known as

(A) Somatopleure (B) Splanchnopleure
(C) Visceralopleure (D) All of these

Q:44: The cellular layer consisting of splanchnic mesoderm and endoderm is known as

(A) Somatopleure (B) Splanchnopleure
(C) Visceralopleure (D) Parietopleure

Q:45: The lateral plate mesoderm is differentiated into 2 sheet like layers i.e. somatic mesoderm and

(A) Chorda mesoderm (B) Proper mesoderm
(C) Splanchnic mesoderm (D) Dermatogenic mesoderm

Q:46: In chick gastrula ____________ and ____________ formation do not occur.

(A) Somatopleure, Splanchnopleure (B) Primitive streak, Dorsal lip
(C) Invagination, Archentron (D) Primitive streak, Ventral lip

Q:47: Mesomere somite gives rise

(A) Digestive system (B) Muscles
(C) Skeleton (D) Excretory system

Q:48: Muscles, axial skeleton and connective tissues are differentiated from

(A) Epimeres (B) Mesomere
(C) Hypomere (D) Endoderm

Q:49: Coelom is formed from

(A) Epimere (B) Hypomere
(C) Mesomere (D) None of these

Q:50: In 24 hours chick embryo the foldings of neural plate are clearly visible. At this stage embryo is called

(A) Morula (B) Blastula
(C) Neurula (D) Blastocyst

Q:51: A tube of tissue formed by a thickening and rolling up of the neural plate during embryonic neurulation. It will later form the brain and spinal cord of the animal. This is called
(A) Neurocoel (B) Neural groove
(C) Neurospore (D) Neural tube

Q:52: _______is the process of selection of activation of some genes by a cell, which are not activated by other cells of the embryo.

(A) Cell induction (B) Cell transformation
(C) Cell differentiation (D) Cell mediation

Q:53: When the primitive streak reaches its maximum length, the cells of the most anterior region of the streak appear morphologically distinct. This region is known as

(A) Node of Raniver (B) Schwan's node
(C) Henson's node (D) None of these

Q:54: Mechanism of differentiation depends up on ____________ organization of unfertilized egg.

(A) Homogenous (B) Heterogeneous
(C) Exogenous (D) All A, B and C

Q:55: The situation where one embryonic tissue influences an other so that the responding tissue differentiates is known as

(A) Instruction (B) Evocation
(C) Induction (D) None of these

Q:56: The control development of cap in Acetabularia is through production of developmentally active substance in

(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm
(C) Gray crescent (D) Both A and B

Q:57: The technique of producing a genetically identical copy of an organism by replacing the nucleus of an unfertilized ovum with the nucleus of a body cell from the organism is

(A) Test tube baby (B) Cloning
(C) In vitro fertilization (D) All A, B and C

Q:58: The study of degenerative changes in aging is called

(A) Developmental biology (B) Paedology
(C) Gerontology (D) Choronology

Q:59: The science of studying and treating malformations and monstrosities of organisms is called

(A) Gerontology (B) Teratology
(C) Dermatology (D) Etiology

Q:60: The normal process of development is disturbed by abnormalities. These abnormalities are due to

(A) Abnormal functioning of glands (B) Abnormal Chromosomal number
(C) UV radiations (D) All of these

Q:61: In birds and mammals regeneration is mostly limited to the small wounds by the formation of a new tissue

(A) Callus (B) Scar
(C) Serous (D) None of these
Q:62: Notochord is formed from

(A) Epimeres (B) Mesomeres
(C) Hypomeres (D) Henson’s node

Q:63: A condition in which heart is present towards right side of the chest is called

(A) Sinistrocardia (B) Dextrocardia
(C) Laterocardia (D) Both A and B

Q:64: Decreased ability or inability of blood to clot is

(A) Thalassemia (B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Haemophilia (D) Haemolysis

Q:65: Turner’s syndrome is

(A) Female sexual defect (B) Male sexual defect
(C) Autosomal recessive trait (D) Infectious disorder

Q:66: A condition characterized by split in the upper lip and gap in the roof of
mouth is

(A) Microcephaly (B) Polydactyly
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Cleft palate

Q:67: Which one of the following is correct about Thalassemia

(A) Decreased clotting ability (B) Increased clotting ability
(C) Abnormal sickle shaped RBC (D) Fragile RBC cause hemolytic anemia

Q:68: Which one of the following is correct about Microcephaly

(A) Small skull (B) Five fingers
(C) Gap in the roof of the mouth (D) Upper lip folded

Q:69: Gray crescent is present in

(A) Eye of frog (B) Retina of cockroach
(C) Brain of frog (D) Zygote of frog

Q:70: The flowering process is a _____________ response.
(A) Phototropic (B) Photoperiodic
(C) Gravitropic (D) Thigmotropic

Answer Key:

1. B
6. C
7. C
9. C
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. B
21. B
22. B
23. C
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. D
53. C
54. B
55. C
57. B
61. B
64. C
65. A
68. A
69. D

Sunday, December 26, 2010


No: of Items: 115

Q:1: _____________ is(are) basis for asexual reproduction.

(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis
(C) Sex hormones (D) All A, B and C

Q:2: What is advantage of asexual reproduction?

(A) Organisms increases rapidly (B) Organisms are morphologically alike
(C) Organisms are genetically alike (D) All A, B and C

Q3: What is advantage of sexual reproduction?

(A) Genetically varied individuals are born (B) Chances of survival increases
(C) Chances of evolution increases (D) All A, B and C

Q:4: Natural method(s) of asexual reproduction in plants is (are)

(A) Spores (B) Vegetative propagation
(C) Apomixis (D) All A, B and C

Q:5: Artificial method(s) of asexual reproduction in plants is (are)

(A) Cuttings (B) Tissue culture
(C) Both A and B (D) Alternation of generation

Q:6: A single mushroom may produce _____________ spores a minute at the peak of its reproduction.

(A) 500,000 (B) 50,000
(C) 80,000 (D) 200,000

Q:7: Perennating organs are associated with which type of asexual reproduction?

(A) Sporulation (B) Apomixis
(C) Vegetative propagation (D) Cutting

Q:8: In apomixis, an embryo is created from a diploid cell in the

(A) Pollen tube (B) Leaf
(C) Ovule (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:9: Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that it does not require

(A) 1 parent (B) 2 parents
(C) Spores (D) Vegetative parts

Q:10: Asexual reproduction does not introduce

(A) Variation (B) Similarity between parents & offsprings
(C) Same chromosomal number in offsprings (D) All of the choices are incorrect

Q:11: Which of the following statements is true of clones?

(A) Clones show variation (B) Clones have DNA identical to parent
(C) Clones are formed by meiotic division (D) All the choices are incorrect

Q:12: Vegetative propagation does not involve

(A) Root parts (B) Stem parts
(C) Leaf parts (D) Flower parts

Q:13: At the cut end of shoot a mass of dividing undifferentiated cells is called

(A) Callus (B) Periblem
(C) Dermatogen (D) Pericycle

Q:14: One of the following is NOT a method of asexual reproduction.

(A) Sporulation (B) Gametogenesis
(C) Apomixis (D) Parthenogenesis

Q:15: Tissue culture is a technique used to produce a large number of _________ plants quickly.

(A) Variable (B) Unicellular
(C) Identical (D) All A, B and C

Q:16: Which of the following disadvantages applies to Tissue culture?

(A) Clone may be genetically unstable (B) Clone may be infertile
(C) Clone karyotype may be altered (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:17: A flagellated motile sperm fertilizing a non-motile egg, this syngamy is called

(A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:18: A type of syngamy in which both fusing gametes are flagellated but different in size are known as

(A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:19: A type of syngamy in which both fusing gametes are flagellated and same in size are known as

(A) Isogamy (B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:20: In gymnosperms the main plant is diploid and

(A) Hompsporous (B) Heterosporous
(C) Microsporous (D) Megasporous

Q:21: In gymnosperms female gametophyte consists of

(A) Pollen tube (B) Microspore
(C) 2 to 5 Archegonia (D) Both B and C

Q:22: In gymnosperms male gametophyte develops from

(A) Microspore (B) Megaspore
(C) Embryo sac (D) Synergids

Q:23: In gymnosperms male gametophyte consists of

(A) Archegonia (B) Megaspore mother cell
(C) Pollen tube (D) Ovule

Q:24: In angiosperms ________________ gives rise seed after fertilization.

(A) Microsporangium (B) Pollen tube
(C) Mega sporangium (D) None of these

Q:25: In gymnosperms and angiosperms, the egg is produced in a female structure called

(A) A seed (B) A stamen
(C) An ovule (D) A pollen grain

Q:26: If someone gives you a plant and tells you that it is an angiosperm, you know that
during its life cycle it will produce

(A) Swimming sperm (B) A prothallus
(C) Flowers (D) Cones

Q:27: The transfer of pollen grains to the female part of the plant is called

(A) Germination (B) Reproduction
(C) Pollination (D) Fertilization

Q:28: The production of new plants from underground stems is an example of __________ reproduction

(A) Two parents (B) Asexual
(C) Zygote (D) Sexual

Q:29: Which one of the following is the male reproductive part of a flower

(A) Stamen (B) Sepal
(C) Petal (D) Pistils

Q:30: In seed plants, sperm travel down a(n) __________ to reach the egg

(A) Stigma tube (B) Ovule tube
(C) Pollen tube (D) Stamen tube

Q:31: A carpel is a leaf which has been modified to produce

(A) Microsporania (B) 2 male gametes
(C) Pollen grains (D) Ovules

Q:32: The stamens are leaves modified for the production of

(A) Microspores (B) Megaspores
(C) Ovules (D) Seed

Q:33: The sepals and petals are

(A) Reproductive parts of flower (B) Non-reproductive parts of flower
(C) Parts of Gametophyte (D) Both A and C

Q:34: The ovule contain

(A) Microsporangium (B) Male gametophyte
(C) Embryo sac (D) All A, B and C

Q:35: The unisexual flowers are called

(A) Staminate (B) Carpellate
(C) Both A and B (D) Monoecious

Q:36: If staminate and carpellate flowers are present on same plant it is termed as

(A) Monoecious (B) Dioecious
(C) Unisexual (D) Neuter

Q:37: Date palms are

(A) Dioecious (B) Monoecious
(C) Neuter (D) Biexual

Q:38: In Angiosperms, double fertilization produces two distinct portions of the seed. The endosperm portion's role is to

(A) Develop into the embryo (B) Nourish the embryo
(C) Develop into the mature sperm (D) Serve as a reservoir for extra DNA

Q:39: Each of the following is a part of a seed Except the

(A) Embryo (B) Endosperm
(C) Seed-coat (D) Gametophyte

Q:40: The mature female gametophyte of an angiosperm is

(A) The archegonium and its egg cell (B) The ovule inside the ovary
(C) The carpel after pollination (D) An embryo sac with 8 nuclei & 7 cells

Q:41: The _______________ ultimately matures into a fruit.

(A) Integument (B) Ovary
(C) Archegonium (D) Ovule

Q:42: Which of the following is part of the third whorl?

(A) Calyx (B) Corolla
(C) Petal (D) Stamen

Q:43: Which of the following is formed in the double fertilization and becomes an endosperm?

(A) Synergid cells (B) Antipodal cells
(C) Primary endosperm nucleus (D) Triploid (3n) nucleus

Q:44: A pollen grain is a

(A) Immature male gametophyte (B) Spore
(C) Fruiting body (D) Mature male gametophyte

Q:45: In plants, spores are formed by 1 , whereas gametes are formed by 2 .

(A) 1-meiosis, 2-mitosis (B) 1-fission, 2-fusion
(C) 1-meiosis, 2-meiosis (D) 1-mitosis, 2-mitosis

Q:46: From life cycle point of view the most important part of a plant is

(A) Flower (B) Leaf
(C) Stem (D) Root

Q:47: The main embryo develops from the structure formed as result of fusion of

(A) 2 polar nuclei of embryo sac (B) Definitive nucleus and male gamete
(C) Egg cell and male gamete (D) Male gamete and synergids

Q:48: The fertilization occurs in

(A) Ovary (B) Ovule
(C) Embryo sac (D) Nucellus

Q:49: The part of embryo just below the cotyledons that terminates into radicle is called

(A) Epicotyl (B) Hypocotyl
(C) Plumule (D) None of these

Q:50: The part of embryo just above the cotyledons that terminates into plumule is called

(A) Epicotyl (B) Hypocotyl
(C) Radicle (D) Coleorhiza

Q:51: A protective sheath surrounding the plumule is

(A) Coleoptile (B) Coleorhiza
(C) Cotyledon (D) Scutellum

Q:52: A protective sheath surrounding the radicle is

(A) Coleoptile (B) Coleorhiza
(C) Cotyledon (D) Scutellum

Q:53: Single large shield shaped cotyledon of monocot seed is called

(A) Coleoptile (B) Coleorhiza
(C) Cotyledon (D) Scutellum

Q:54: It is defined as a cluster of flowers, arising from the main stem axis or peduncle

(A) Inflorescence (B) Phosphorescence
(C) Luminescence (D) Senescence

Q:55: Which type of inflorescence is shown in the following diagram?

(A) Corymb (B) Umbel
(C) Raceme (D) Spike

Q:56: In ______________ inflorescence flowers develop into acropetal succession?

(A) Racemose (B) Cymose
(C) Dichasial cyme (D) Scorpioid cyme

Q:57: In which type of inflorescence flowers are covered by large bracts called spathes

(A) Spike (B) Spadix
(C) Capitulum (D) Spikelet

Q:58: A(an) ______________ is type of recemose inflorescence with a short axis and multiple floral pedicels of equal length that appear to arise from a common point.

(A) Corymb (B) Umbel
(C) Raceme (D) Spike

Q:59: A type of uniparous cyme in which succeeding branches are produced on same side is termed is

(A) Helicoid cyme (B) Scorpioid cyme
(C) Dichasial cyme (D) None of these

Q:60: A type of uniparous cyme in which succeeding branches are produced on alternate sides is termed is

(A) Helicoid cyme (B) Scorpioid cyme
(C) Dichasial cyme (D) None of these

Q:61: It is type of recemose inflorescence that is flat-topped or convex because the outer pedicels are progressively longer than the inner ones.

(A) Corymb (B) Capitulum
(C) Spadix (D) Spike

Q:62: For breaking seed dormancy _____________ is required?

(A) Water (B) Suitable temperature
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

Q:63: The process in which fruit develops without fertilization is called

(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Parthenocarpy
(C) Viviparous germination (D) Apomixis

Q:64: The pollen grain consist of

(A) Exine part (B) Intine part
(C) Tube nucleus & generative nucleus (D) All A, B and C

Q:65: Hypogeal germination takes place due to rapid growth of

(A) Epicotyl (B) Hypocotyl
(C) Cotyledon (D) All A. B and C

Q:66: Epigeal germination takes place due to rapid growth of

(A) Epicotyl (B) Hypocotyl
(C) Cotyledon (D) All A. B and C

Q:67: A special type of reproduction in which seed starts germination inside fruit is

(A) Epigeal germination (B) Hypogeal germination
(C) Viviparous germination (D) All choices are correct

Q:68: The first organ to emerge from the germinating seed is

(A) Radicle (B) Plumule
(C) Cotyledon (D) Epicotyl

Q:69: Promotion of flowering by cold treatment given to imbibed seeds or young plants is known as

(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Parthenogenesis
(C) Apomixis (D) Vernalization

Q:70: Spinach is

(A) Long day plant (B) Short day plant
(C) Day neutral plant (D) None of these

Q:71: Phytochrome exist in two forms i.e. P660 and

(A) P307 (B) P370
(C) P703 (D) P730

Q:72: Phytochrome comprises a pigment and a

(A) Lipid (B) Carbohydrate
(C) Mineral (D) Protein

Q:73: It has been found that red light promotes flowering in _________________ plants

(A) Long day (B) Short day
(C) Neutral day (D) None of these

Q:74: The hormone florigen is produced in

(A) Leaves (B) Flower
(C) Stem (D) Roots

Q:75: A form of asexual reproduction in which new individual grows out as small
out growth and eventually separates from parent body is called

(A) Forming a spore (B) Budding
(C) Regeneration (D) Fission

Q:76: Reproduction of egg without fertilization by sperm is termed as

(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Parthenocarpy
(C) Regeneration (D) Budding

Q:77: The technique of producing a genetically identical copy of an organism by replacing the nucleus of an unfertilized ovum with the nucleus of a body cell from the organism is

(A) Budding (B) Cloning
(C) Parthenocarpy (D) Fission

Q:78: Fraternal twins

(A) Can be only two boys (B) Can be only two girls
(C) Can not be one boy and one girl (D) Can be one boy and one girl

Q:79: Sexual reproduction is important to avoid

(A) Variation (B) Chances of survival
(C) Genetic monotony (D) All A, B and C

Q:80: Which of the following cell type is haploid?

(A) Primary spermatocyte (B) Spermatogonium
(C) Sertoli cell (D) Secondary spermatocyte

Q:81: Spermatogenesis and oogenesis both involve

(A) Mitosis only (B) Meiosis only
(C) Both mitosis and meiosis (D) All a, b and c are incorrect

Q:82: After meiosis, the __________ differentiates into the mature sperm.

(A) Primary spermatocyte (B) Spermatid
(C) Secondary spermatocyte (D) Spermatogonium

Q:83: The animals which lay eggs are called

(A) Oviparous (B) Viviparous
(C) Dioecious (D) Neuter

Q:84: In terrestrial conditions which type fertilization is more common

(A) External (B) Internal
(C) Self (D) None of these

Q:85: In mammalian males, the reproductive and excretory system share the same

(A) Ureter (B) Vas defrens
(C) Urinary bladder (D) Urethra

Q:86: External Male genitalia are

(A) Vasa efferentia and Penis (B) Seminiferous tubules and Penis
(C) Scrotum and Penis (D) None of these

Q:87: Human testes are packed with about ______ seminiferous tubules which produce about _____ million sperms every day.

(A) 200, 20 (B) 300, 40
(C) 500, 30 (D) 500,10

Q:88: Three sets of glands secrete fluids which combine with the sperm to form

(A) Interstitial fluid (B) Semen
(C) Amniotic fluid (D) Both A and B

Q:89: A human female has around ____________ oocytes in each of her ovary.

(A) 30.000 (B) 200,000
(C) 300,000 (D) 20,000

Q:90: Fertilization of human eggs most often takes place in the

(A) Ovary (B) Uterus
(C) Oviduct (Fallopian tube) (D) Cervix

Q:91: In human female only one ovum is usually discharged from the ovary at one time it is called

(A) Parturition (B) Menstruation
(C) Ovulation (D) Implantation

Q:92: The uterus opens into the ________________ through cervix.

(A) Fallopian tube (B) Urethra
(C) Vagina (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:93: The follicle cells, after release of the egg, are modified to form a special structure called

(A) Endometrium (B) Perimetrium
(C) Graffian follicle (D) Corpus luteum

Q:94: In mammals that are seasonal breeders, females are receptive only once a year. This is called

(A) A follicular cycle (B) An estrous cycle
(C) A menstrual cycle (D) A luteal cycle

Q:95: The lining or inner layer of the uterus is called the _______________.

(A) Myometrium (B) Perimetrium
(C) Endometrium (D) Both A and C.

Q:96: What event occurs in the menstrual cycle when the level of progesterone decline

(A) Ovulation (B) Beginning of menses
(C) Formation of corpus luteum (D) Maturation of ovarian follicle

Q:97: _______ is produced mainly by the
corpus luteum in the ovary following ovulation

(A) Progesterone (B) Follicle stimulating hormone
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Chorionic gonadotrphic hormone

Q:98: From which of the following structures is the secondary oocyte ovulated?

(A) Corpus luteum (B) Graffian follicle
(C) Primary follicle (D) Germinal epithelium

Q:99: The process by which ___________ becomes embedded in Endometrium is called ________________.

(A) Morula, parturition (B) Blastocyst, parturition
(C) Blastocyst, implantation (D) Morula, implantation

Q:100: : ____________________ controls the release of milk form the mammary glands.

(A) Oxytocin (B) Follicle stimulating hormone
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) None of these

Q:101: An egg fertilized in the laboratory and then implanted in the uterus for development is called

(A) Cloning (B) Test tube baby
(C) Both A and B (D) In vivo fertilization

Q:102: The period starting from conception up to the birth of baby is called

(A) Implantation period (B) Gestation period
(C) Extra uterine period (D) Imprinting period

Q:103: Menopause in female comes at the age of

(A) 30 to 40 years (B) 45 to 50 years
(C) 60 to 65 years (D) 70 years

Q:104: This hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates release of FSH from the anterior pituitary

(A) Gonadotropin (B) Oxytocin
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Progesterone

Q:105: Sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by Treponema pallidum is

(A) Syphilis (B) Genital herpes
(C) Gonorrhea (D) AIDS

Q:106: Genital herpes is type of STD caused by

(A) A bacterium (B) A sporozoan
(C) A virus (D) A fungus

Q:107: If the egg is not fertilized, _____________________ occurs

(A) Menstruation (B) Pregnancy
(C) Implantation (D) All A, B and C

Q:108: It is a tube that connects a developing embryo or fetus to the placenta.

(A) Amnion (B) Chorionic Villum
(C) Umbilical cord (D) Allantois

Q:109: Gonorrhea is

(A) Bacterial disease (B) Viral disease
(C) Protozoanal disease (D) Fungal disease

Q:110: Infertility is overcome by a technique known as

(A) In vitro fertilization (B) In vivo fertilization
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

Q:111: The tissue attaching the embryo to the wall of uterus is

(A) Graffian follicle (B) Corpus luteum
(C) Placenta (D) All choices are incorrect

Q:112: This hormone would be at an increased level in a mother who is breast feeding

(A) Thyroxine (B) Prolactin
(C) Aldosterone (D) Insulin

Q:113: The contractions of the muscles of uterus during parturition are stimulated by

(A) Prolactin (B) GnRH
(C) FSH (D) Oxytocin

Q:114: During females fertile years only about ___________ oocytes develop into mature eggs.

(A) 20,000 (B) 250,000
(C) 300,000 (D) 450

Q:115: Which hormone stimulates process of ovulation

(A) Prolactin (B) LH
(C) FSH (D) Oxytocin

Answer Key:

1. A
2. D
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. B
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. A
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. A
38. B
41. B
42. D
43. D
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. C
48. C
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. B
54. A
55. D
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. A
60. B
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. A
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. A
71. D
72. D
73. A
74. A
75. B
76. A
77. B
78. D
79. C
80. D
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. B
91. C
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. B
97. A
101. B
104. A
108. C
110. A
111. C

Saturday, December 25, 2010


No: of Items: 120

Q:1: The number of metabolic processes are interwoven by

(A) Incoordination (B) Subordination
(C) Coordination (D) All A, B and C

Q:2: A cell or group of cells specialized to detect changes in the environment and trigger impulses are known as

(A) Effectors (B) Receptors
(C) Suppressors (D) B and C

Q3: The term Auxin was coined by

(A) T-Yabuta 1970 (B) F.W.Went 1926
(C) Walter 1928 (D) Hoshimata 1910

Q:4: You duck your head when a baseball is thrown toward your face. You are responding to

(A) An internal stimulus (B) Pigments
(C) Hormones (D) An external stimulus

Q:5: A plant's response to touch is called

(A) Photoperiodism (B) Geotropism
(C) Thigmotropism (D) Phototropism

Q:6: The biological clock is an independent, ________________, time measuring system.

(A) Endogenous (B) Exogenous
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

Q:7: If bio-rhythm occurs with a frequency of 24 hours, it is called

(A) Circadian rhythm (B) Circa-annual rhythm
(C) Lunar rhythm (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:8: Photosynthesis and Luminescence in algae and Dinoflagelltes, CO2 metabolism in Bryophylum are

(A) Dependent on light and Temperature (B) Exogenous in origin
(C) Independent of light and temperature (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:9: The influence of daily cycle of light and darkness on the physiology and behaviour of an organism is known as

(A) Mechanical rhythm (B) Chemoperiodism
(C) Photoperiodism (D) Thigmotropism

Q:10: The synthesis and release of abscisic acid in a plant is response to

(A) Water deficit (B) Oxygen deprivation
(C) Salt stress (D) Herbivory

Q:11: Circadian rhythms are based on approximately a

(A) 2-hour period (B) 7-day period
(C) 24-hour period (D) 365-day period

Q:12: The production of fructants by plants is response to

(A) Water deficit (B) Salt stress
(C) Cold stress (D) Heat stress

Q:13: The formation of air tubes in submerged roots is an adaptation to

(A) Water stress (B) Oxygen deprivation
(C) Salt stress (D) Herbivory

Q:14: Which of the following describes a plant's response to heat stress?

(A) Production of heat shock proteins (B) Closing of stomata
(C) Production of Abscisic acid (D) Production of fructants

Q:15: The first line of defense against pathogen is

(A) Gene for gene-recognition (B) Production of oligosaccharides
(C) Production of Phytoalexins (D) Physical barrier of epidermis

Q:16: Auxin causes

(A) Promotion of apical dominance (B) Formation of Adventitious roots
(C) Growth of fruit (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:17: _________________ in combination with Auxin stimulates cell division in plants and determines the course of differentiation.

(A) Ethylene (B) Gibberellins
(C) Abscisic acid (D) Cytokinin

Q:18: "Foolish seedling" disease in rice is caused by

(A) Ethylene (B) Gibberellins
(C) Abscisic acid (D) Cytokinin

Q:19: One of the most important uses of Auxin is the

(A) Initiation of abscission (B) Stimulation of abscission
(C) Prevention of abscission (D) Acceleration of abscission

Q:20: Abscisic acid

(A) Induces bud dormancy (B) Causes the stomata to close
(C) Promotes senescence (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:21: Which of the following is weedicide hormone?

(A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin
(C) Abscisic acid (D) Ethylene

Q:22: Gibberellic acid was discovered by

(A) Hoshimata and Rappaport (B) Donoho and Walker
(C) Yabuta and Hayashi (D) Litrochet ad Dolk

Q:23: Plants may be made to grow taller by applying the chemical

(A) Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (B) Trichloropenoxy acetic acid
(C) Gibberellic acid (D) Phosphon

Q:24: IAA, NAA, and GA are

(A) International seed companies (B) Plant Pheromones
(C) spray adjuvants (D) Plant hormones

Q:25: Ethene

(A) Triggers ripening of fruit (B) Promotes leaf abscission
(C) Initiates flowering (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:26: The hormone responsible for delay of senescence is

(A) Ethene (B) Gibberellin
(C) Abscisic acid (D) Cytokinin

Q:27: The naturally occurring Cytokinin is

(A) Zeatin (B) Kinetin
(C) Nepthalene acetic acid (D) Indole butyric acid

Q:28: Gibberellin

(A) Stimulate flowering (B) Promote bud sprouting
(C) Stimulate growth of Pollen tube (D) All A, B and C

Q:29: Abscisic acid

(A) Is growth inhibitor (B) Produced during adverse conditions
(C) Induces seed dormancy (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:30: Which of the following is NOT function of Auxin?

(A) Induces Parthenocarpy (B) Promote Apical dominance
(C) Promote Abscission (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:31: Neurons are the cells which make up the nervous system. They consist of

(A) An axon (B) 2 or more dendrites
(C) A cell body containing a nucleus (D) All A, B and C

Q:32: ___________________ send information from the sense organs to the C.N.S.

(A) Sensory neurons (B) Motor neurons
(C) Interneurons (D) Neuroglia

Q:33: ____________________ send information from the C.N.S to the Effectors.

(A) Sensory neurons (B) Motor neurons
(C) Interneurons (D) Neuroglia

Q:34: _____________________ connect different neurons together, send information between neurons. They have short dendrites and short axons

(A) Sensory neurons (B) Motor neurons
(C) Interneurons (D) Neuroglia

Q:35: The diagram below represents

(A) Resting Potential (B) Polysynaptic reflex action
(C) Reflex arc (D) Both B and C

Q:36: Select the correct choice for Label X in the diagram below.

(A) Presynaptic membrane
(B) Post synaptic membrane
(C) Synaptic cleft with neurotransmitters
(D) Motor-end plate

Q:37: The very small gap between an axon sending a message and dendrite receiving the message is the

(A) Axon terminal (B) Receptor
(C) Synapse (D) Effector

Q:38: What is the part of neuron that carries the signals away from the soma

(A) Axon (B) Dendrite
(C) Transmitter (D) Synapse

Q:39: The neurons of CNS that form myelin sheath, provide nutrition and are involved in
phagocytic activity are known as

(A) Sensory neurons (B) Motor neurons
(C) Interneurons (D) Neuroglia

Q:40: It is an automatic neuromuscular action elicited by a defined stimulus.

(A) Voluntary action (B) Reflex action
(C) Motor action (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:41: A reflex action involving one or more Interneurons between sensory and motor neuron is termed as

(A) Monosynaptic reflex (B) Polysynaptic reflex
(C) Hemisynaptic reflex (D) None of these

Q:42: At resting potential, the ion distribution inside and outside of a neuron is such that __________ ions are most abundant on the outside of the cell, while __________ ions are most abundant on the inside of the cell.

(A) Potassium; sodium (B) Sodium; potassium
(C) Calcium; phosphate (D) Sulfate; potassium

Q:43: When a neuron reaches action potential, it depolarizes and repolarizes in an amount of __________________ time on the order of

(A) Seconds (B) Milliseconds
(C) Microseconds (D) Nanoseconds

Q:44: Nerves impulses always travel to the brain through _____ fibers.

(A) Interneuron (B) Dendrite
(C) Axon (D) Motor

Q:45: Which of these is true when a neuron is at rest

(A) The outside is positive (B) The outside is negative
(C) There is no voltage (D) The inside is positive

Q:46: The typical neuronal resting membrane potential measures between
(A) – 40 mv to – 80 mv (B) – 30 mv to – 80 mv
(C) – 40 mv to – 90 mv (D) – 40 mv to – 70 mc

Q:47: Influx of ___________ causes depolarization of the membrane, which is the first phase of the action potential.
(A) K+ (B) Na+
(C) K+ and Na+ (D) Ca+

Q:48: Diffused nervous system is present in _____________ animals.

(A) Asymmetrical (B) Bilaterally symmetrical
(C) Radially symmetrical (D) All A, B and C

Q:49: Central nervous system is present in _____________ animals.

(A) Asymmetrical (B) Bilaterally symmetrical
(C) Radially symmetrical (D) All A, B and C

Q:50: How many interneurons does the CNS contain approximately?

(A) 1 Trillion (B) 100 million
(C) 1 million (D) 100 billion

Q:51: The brain stem is composed of
(A) The spinal cord, axon, vertebra (B) The cerebrum, cerebellum, pons
(C) The medulla, pons, mid brain (D) The thalamus. Mid brain, pons

Q:52: Nerve cells can send messages more faster if they have

(A) Many chromosomes (B) Non-myelinated axons
(C) Many dendrites (D) Myelinated axons

Q:53: Which part of the brain is the seat of conscious activities?
(A) Limbic brain (B) Brain stem
(C) Cerebral cortex (D) Occipital lobe

Q:54: A large number of bundle fibers that connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres is
(A) Lateral sulcus (B) Broca's area
(C) Corpus callosum (D) Ventral sulcus

Q:55: The diencephalons consists of
(A) Thalamus and Hypothalamus (B) Pons and Medulla oblongata
(C) Hypothalamus and limbic system (D) Thalamus and limbic system

Q:56: When your finger accidentally gets caught in a door, the pain message is sent to your brain through
(A) Medulla oblongata (B) Homeostasis
(C) Sensory receptors (D) Caffeine

Q:57: Which of these is the largest part of your brain
(A) The cerebellum (B) The cerebrum
(C) The medulla (D) The pons

Q:58: The division of the peripheral nervous system that regulates your heart beat is

(A) The somatic system (B) The muscular system
(C) The autonomic system (D) The skeletal system

Q:59: It is the material in the brain and spinal cord which contains the axons and myelin sheathes of nerve cells.

(A) White matter (B) Gray matter
(C) Yellow matter (D) None of these

Q:60: It is the material in the brain and spinal cord which contains the cell bodies and dendrite of nerve cells.

(A) Gray matter (B) White matter
(C) Brown matter (D) Yellow matter

Q:61: In which portion of the spinal cord do the interneurons lie

(A) Cervical enlargement (B) Lumbar enlargement
(C) Gray matter (D) White matter

Q:62: The embryonic hindbrain gives rise to what structures in the brain

(A) Cerebrum and basal ganglia (B) Diencephalon
(C) Midbrain (D) Cerebellum, pons, & medulla oblongata

Q:63: The _________________ is a portion of the brain that maintains homeostasis by linking activities of the endocrine and nervous systems together

(A) Thalamus (B) Hypothalamus
(C) Pons (D) Medulla oblongata

Q:64: Which of these nuclei is not located entirely within the medulla oblongata

(A) Cardiac center (B) Respiratory center
(C) Vasomotor center (D) Reticular formation

Q:65: Which structures would NOT be innervated by the sympathetic nervous system

(A) Skeletal muscles (B) Glands
(C) Smooth muscles (D) Cardiac muscles

Q:66: Which term should be last in this reflex sequence

(A) Sensory neuron (B) Motor neuron
(C) Effector (D) Receptor

Q:67: Parkinson disease tremors are the result of which condition

(A) Dopamine excess (B) Norepinephrine deficiency
(C) Epinephrine excess (D) Dopamine deficiency

Q:68:The centers for thermoregulation, osmoregulation, are located within

(A) Thalamus (B) Hypothalamus
(C) Amygdala (D) Hippocampus

Q:69: Which brain area acts to screen all incoming sensory data

(A) Thalamus (B) Hypothalamus
(C) Cerebral cortex (D) Cerebellum

Q:70: Which brain area coordinates skeletal muscle movements

(A) Thalamus (B) Hypothalamus
(C) Amygdala (D) Cerebellum

Q:71: It is involved in sleeping and wakening.

(A) Thalamus (B) Brain stem
(C) Hippocampus (D) Cerebellum

Q:72: Peripheral nervous system in Man consists of

(A) 31 spinal and 12 cranial nerve pairs (B) 33 spinal and 12 cranial nerve pairs
(C) 12 spinal and 31 cranial nerve pairs (D) 31 spinal and 31cranial nerve pairs

Q:73: They detect sound, motion, position in relation to gravity, touch, pressure.

(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Photoreceptors
(C) Mechanoreceptors (D) Nociceptors

Q:74: Nociceptors are ________________ skin receptors.

(A) Free nerve ending (B) Hot
(C) Cold (D) Encapsulated nerve ending

Q:75: Meissner's corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle are _________________ skin receptors.

(A) Free nerve ending (B) Hot
(C) Cold (D) Encapsulated nerve ending

Q:76: The receptors which note the changes in blood pressure are

(A) Caloreceptors (B) Frigdoreceptors
(C) Baroreceptors (D) Nociceptors

Q:77: Dorsal root of spinal cord is

(A) Sensory (B) Motor
(C) Mixed (D) All a, b and c

Q:78: The branch of the autonomic nervous system that induces the "flight or fight" response is the

(A) Sympathetic (B) Parasympathetic
(C) Vagus nerve (D) Somatic nerve

Q:79: Nicotine

(A) Reduces fatigue (B) Raises blood pressure
(C) Increases alertness (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:80: It is a disorder involving repeated seizures of any type.

(A) Parkinson's disease (B) Alzheimer's disease
(C) Epilepsy (D) All of the choices are incorrect

Q:81: Alzheimer's disease (AD), is a progressive, degenerative brain disease. Its symptoms include

(A) Dementia (B) Hallucination
(C) Delusions (D) All A, B and C

Q:82: Endocrine glands typically

(A) Are ductless (B) Release enzymes
(C) Release neurotransmitters (D) Release their contents out of the body

Q:83: Islets of Langerhans are found in the

(A) Thyroid (B) Thymus
(C) Pancreas (D) Pituitary

Q:84: Cortisol is released from the
(A) Parathyroid (B) Adrenal cortex
(C) Hypothalamus (D) Posterior pituitary

Q:85: Calcium is released from bone into the bloodstream due to the action of

(A) ADH (B) GnRH
(C) LH (D) PTH

Q:86: Aldosterone is produced by the ____________ gland and it causes reabsorption of ________________.

(A) Thyroid; sodium (B) Pituitary; water
(C) Adrenal; sodium (D) Thymus; white blood cells
Q:87: Blood calcium is lowered by the hormone
(A) Calcitonin (B) Glucagon
(C) Adrenalin (D) Thyroxine

Q:88: An oversecretion of GH (or STH) would lead to

(A) Goiter (B) Diabetes
(C) Infertility (D) Gigantism

Q:89: Which pair of hormones act antagonistically

(A) Glucagon and Cortisol (B) Insulin and Adrenalin
(C) Glucagon and Insulin (D) Glucagon and Adrenalin

Q:90: This hormone would be at an increased level in a mother who is breast feeding

(A) Thyroxine (B) Prolactin
(C) Aldosterone (D) Insulin

Q:91: Compared to neurotransmitters, hormones act

(A) Faster (B) On fewer cells
(C) For a shorter period of time (D) Over longer distances

Q:92: Hormones are made from

(A) Amino acids (B) Modified amino acids
(C) Steroid (D) All of the choices are correct

Q:93: As the sun comes up in the morning, your blood level of __________ goes down and you wake up

(A) Melatonin (B) Cortisol
(C) Glucagon (D) Adrenalin

Q:94: Which hormone is most commonly associated with the "fight or flight" response to stress
(A) Insulin (B) Adrenalin
(C) Calcitonin (D) Prolactin

Q:95: These two hormones are produced by the hypothalamus but stored in the posterior pituitary

(A) Insulin and Glucagon (B) ADH and Oxytocin
(C) Growth hormone and prolactin (D) Thymosin and adrenalin

Q:96: This hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary


Q:97: Thyroxin (or thyroid hormone) travels through the bloodstream acting on many target calls to increase

(A) Blood sugar (B) Blood calcium
(C) Metabolism (D) Anti-inflammatory reactions

Q:98: The major target for ACTH is the

(A) Pancreas (B) Thyroid
(C) Liver (D) Adrenal

Q:99: Too much ACTH release could cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar). Since sugar is a solute, this could also cause

(A) Increased blood pressure (B) Increased blood calcium
(C) Decreased body temperature (D) Decreased metabolism

Q:100: A patient suffering from dwarfism is most likely deficient in

(C) STH (D) GnRH

Q:101: A patient that is losing weight and suffering from an increased body temperature could be hypersecreting

(A) Thyroxin (B) PTH
(C) STH (D) GnRH

Q:102: Hormones that enter target cells and bind to receptors in the cytoplasm and then enter the nucleus are called

(A) Steroid hormones (B) Water soluble hormones
(C) Peptide hormones (D) Second messengers

Q:103: All of the following are hormones of the anterior pituitary EXCEPT

(A) Human growth hormone (GH) (B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(C) Parathyroid hormone(PTH) (D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Q:104: The gland which can be classified as an endocrine and an exocrine gland is the

(A) Thyroid (B) Thymus
(C) Pancreas (D) Pituitary

Q:105: Excess level of Cortisol results in

(A) Addison's disease (B) Cretinism
(C) Cushing's syndrome (D) Diabetes insipidus

Q:106: Hormone responsible for differentiation of T-lymphocytes is

(A) Cortisol (B) Melatonin
(C) Thyroxin (D) Thymosin

Q:107: A 30 years old male complains of being over weight, sluggish in nature, hair loss, dry skin, and intolerance of cold, he is suffering
(A) Cretinism (B) Myxedema
(C) Addison's disease (D) Huntington's disease

Q:108: The study of the natural history of animal behavior is
(A) Etiology (B) Psychology
(C) Ethology (D) Parapsychology

Q:109: Learning to not respond to a stimulus is called

(A) Imprinting (B) Sensitization
(C) Kinesis (D) Habituation

Q:110: A "Skinner box" is used for experiments in

(A) Operant conditioning (B) Classical conditioning
(C) Migration (D) Aggression

Q:111: A sensitive phase and critical period are associated with what type of behavior?

(A) Kinesis (B) Taxis
(C) Imprinting (D) Habituation

Q:112: Dog salivating at the ringing of a bell is associated with what type of behavior?

(A) Classical conditioning (B) Operant conditioning
(C) Imprinting (D) Habituation

Q:113: Humans ignoring night sounds while asleep is an example of

(A) Classical conditioning (B) Operant conditioning
(C) Imprinting (D) Habituation

Q:114: A rat in a box learns to associate pressing a lever with obtaining food

(A) Operant conditioning (B) Classical conditioning
(C) Imprinting (D) Aggression

Q:115: An example of learned behaviour

(A) Operant conditioning (B) Classical conditioning
(C) Latent learning (D) All A, B and C

Q:116: The term imprinting was coined by ________________ in 1930.

(A) Konard Lorenz (B) Ernest Haeckel
(C) Schwarz (D) T. H. Morgan

Q:117: Fixed action pattern (FAP) is stereotype behavior that is triggered by an external sensory stimulus known as

(A) Response chain (B) Endogenous releaser
(C) Sign stimulus (D) All A, B and C

Q:118: Increased response to an increase in Stimulus intensity is called

(A) Positive phototaxis (B) Kinesis
(C) Negative phototaxis (D) Luminis

Q:119: The animals which are active at dusk or dawn are termed as

(A) Nocturnal (B) Diurnal
(C) Crepuscular (D) Arboreal

Q:120: The set point of glucose blood level in your body is

(A) 90 mg / 100 ml (B) 50 mg / 100 ml
(C) 30 mg / 100 ml (D) 40 mg / 100 ml
Answer Key:

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. D
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. B
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. C
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. C
52. D
53. C
54. C
55. D
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. A
61. C
62. D
63. B
64. D
65. A
66. C
67. D
68. B
69. A
70. D
71. B
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. A
79. D
80. C
81. D
82. A
83. C
84. B
85. D
86. C
87. A
88. D
89. C
90. B
91. C
92. D
93. A
94. B
95. B
96. C
97. C
98. D
99. A
100 C
101. A
102. A
103. C
104. C
105. C
108. C
110. A
111. C
112. A